Free ABIM Neurocritical Care Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the ABIM Neurocritical Care Subspecialty Certification. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
What does a focused neuro-ICU exam add beyond the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
Pupillary size/reactivity, brainstem reflexes (corneal, oculocephalic, cough), and motor asymmetry. GCS cannot be verbally scored in sedated or intubated patients, so document best eye/motor response, note sedation status, and track trend over time rather than a single score.
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About These ABIM Neurocritical Care Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the ABIM Neurocritical Care Subspecialty Certification. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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What does a focused neuro-ICU exam add beyond the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
Pupillary size/reactivity, brainstem reflexes (corneal, oculocephalic, cough), and motor asymmetry. GCS cannot be verbally scored in sedated or intubated patients, so document best eye/motor response, note sedation status, and track trend over time rather than a single score.
How does the Monro-Kellie doctrine explain the limits of intracranial compensation?
Brain, blood, and CSF volumes sum to a fixed intracranial volume. A growing mass (hematoma, edema) is first compensated by displacing CSF and venous blood; once that reserve is exhausted, small further volume increases cause steep, nonlinear ICP rises.
Why does impaired cerebral autoregulation matter after TBI, SAH, or stroke?
Normally, cerebral blood flow stays roughly constant across a wide MAP range through vessel tone changes. Autoregulation is often impaired in injured brain, so CBF then tracks MAP passively - abrupt BP swings can directly cause ischemia or hyperemia/edema.
How does mannitol lower ICP, and what should be monitored during its use?
Mannitol (0.25-1 g/kg IV bolus) draws water from brain into plasma by osmotic gradient and causes an osmotic diuresis. Monitor volume status, renal function, sodium, and the osmolar gap; NCS 2020 prefers the osmolar gap over a fixed serum-osmolality cutoff, and the traditional 320 mOsm/kg ceiling is not evidence-based.
Why might hypertonic saline be preferred over mannitol in a hemodynamically unstable neuro-ICU patient?
Hypertonic saline (e.g., 3% bolus) raises serum sodium to draw free water out of brain tissue without mannitol's osmotic diuresis, so it avoids worsening hypovolemia or hypotension - useful in unstable, hyponatremic, or volume-depleted patients.
How is warfarin-associated intracranial hemorrhage reversed?
4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (dosed by INR and weight) corrects the coagulopathy within minutes, given together with IV vitamin K, which is required because 4F-PCC's factor correction is transient and vitamin K sustains it.
What agent reverses dabigatran, and how is it dosed?
Idarucizumab, a monoclonal antibody fragment that binds dabigatran directly, is given as two consecutive 2.5 g IV infusions (5 g total), producing reversal within minutes. It has no effect on factor Xa inhibitors.
How is apixaban- or rivaroxaban-associated ICH reversed in the US now that andexanet alfa is off the market?
Give 4-factor PCC (off-label; the 2022 AHA/ASA ICH guideline rates it COR 2b). Andexxa left the US market on December 22, 2025, after FDA judged its thromboembolic risks outweighed its benefits; in ANNEXA-I (NEJM 2024) it improved hemostasis but raised thrombotic events (10.3% vs 5.6%).
Why is propofol often favored for sedation in the neuro-ICU, and what is its key risk?
Its short half-life allows rapid wake-up for serial neuro exams, and it lowers cerebral metabolic rate/ICP. Prolonged high-dose infusions risk propofol infusion syndrome (metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac failure) - monitor triglycerides and CK.
What did the ESETT trial establish about second-line status epilepticus therapy?
ESETT (2019) found IV fosphenytoin, valproate, and levetiracetam roughly equally effective (about 45-47% seizure cessation) for benzodiazepine-refractory status epilepticus, with similar safety - agent choice can be guided by comorbidities rather than presumed superiority.
Does early tracheostomy improve functional outcome in ventilated patients with severe stroke?
Not shown to. SETPOINT2 (JAMA 2022) randomized 382 ventilated severe-stroke patients to tracheostomy within 5 days or to weaning with tracheostomy from day 10 if needed. Survival without severe disability (mRS 0–4) at 6 months was 43.5% vs 47.1% (not significant), with no difference in ventilation duration or ICU stay.
How should ventilator settings be targeted in a patient with elevated ICP risk?
Target normocapnia (PaCO2 roughly 35-40 mmHg) and the lowest PEEP that maintains oxygenation. High PEEP can impede cerebral venous outflow and modestly raise ICP; hypercapnia raises CBF/ICP, and hypoxia worsens secondary injury.
How do neurologic complications differ between VA-ECMO and VV-ECMO?
Overall neurologic complications and ischemic stroke are more common with VA-ECMO; intracranial hemorrhage is not (ELSO registry: about 1.8% on VA vs 3.6% on VV). Anticoagulation drives ICH on either mode, so use serial neuro exams and a low threshold for imaging.
How does neurogenic shock differ from hypovolemic or septic shock?
Neurogenic shock (from cervical/high-thoracic spinal cord injury) causes hypotension WITH bradycardia, from loss of sympathetic tone and unopposed vagal input - unlike hypovolemic or septic shock, which cause reflex tachycardia. Treat with vasopressors supporting both tone and rate.
When should enteral nutrition start in a mechanically ventilated severe TBI patient, and by when should full replacement be reached?
Start within 24-48 hours once hemodynamically stable. Severe TBI causes a hypermetabolic, catabolic state; BTF recommends reaching basal caloric replacement by day 5, and no later than day 7, post-injury to reduce mortality. A post-pyloric route is considered if gastric residuals are high.
How should fever be managed after acute brain injury?
Fever raises cerebral metabolic demand and can worsen secondary injury and ICP. Treat fever to normothermia and find its source; after cardiac arrest, actively prevent fever. In normothermic acute ischemic stroke, prophylactic fever prevention or induced hypothermia is not recommended (2026 AHA/ASA, COR 3: No Benefit).
When is pharmacologic VTE prophylaxis typically added after spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage?
Mechanical prophylaxis (intermittent pneumatic compression) starts immediately. Pharmacologic prophylaxis (e.g., subcutaneous heparin) is generally added once hematoma stability is confirmed on repeat imaging, commonly 24-48 hours after onset, balancing VTE risk against rebleeding risk.
What distinguishes ICU delirium from dementia or an isolated toxic-metabolic encephalopathy?
Delirium is an acute, fluctuating disturbance of attention and awareness with an identifiable precipitant (sedation, infection, metabolic derangement), unlike dementia's chronic stable decline. Validated tools (e.g., CAM-ICU) should be used routinely, since delirium is frequently missed by gestalt exam.
What causes neurogenic pulmonary edema after acute severe brain injury such as SAH?
A catecholamine surge raises pulmonary capillary pressure and vascular permeability, causing rapid-onset pulmonary edema without primary cardiac or renal failure. It typically improves within 48-72 hours with supportive respiratory care once the neurologic insult is controlled.
What cardiac complication mimicking myocardial infarction can follow aneurysmal SAH?
Neurogenic (Takotsubo-like) stress cardiomyopathy from catecholamine surge, causing troponin elevation, ECG changes, and reduced ejection fraction. After SAH it often follows a basal/mid-ventricular 'reverse Takotsubo' pattern rather than classic apical ballooning; normal coronaries on angiography confirm it, and it is usually reversible over days to weeks.
How do central diabetes insipidus, SIADH, and cerebral salt wasting differ in sodium and volume status?
DI: high sodium, hypovolemic, dilute polyuria. SIADH: low sodium, euvolemic, concentrated urine. Cerebral salt wasting: low sodium, hypovolemic, high urine sodium - volume status is the key discriminator between SIADH and CSW, both common after SAH/TBI.
Should fluids be restricted for hyponatremia after aneurysmal SAH?
No. Whether hyponatremia is from SIADH or cerebral salt wasting, fluid restriction after aSAH raises the risk of delayed cerebral ischemia. Maintain euvolemia and replete sodium and volume losses instead; assess volume status directly rather than restricting fluids based on sodium level alone.
What neurologic presentation should raise concern for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
New thrombocytopenia with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (schistocytes) plus altered mental status or focal deficits. TTP is a hematologic emergency treated with urgent plasma exchange; platelet transfusion is generally avoided unless there is life-threatening bleeding, since it can worsen microthrombosis.
How does perfusion imaging extend IV thrombolysis beyond 4.5 hours?
Automated CT or MR perfusion showing salvageable penumbra supports IVT 4.5-9 hours after last known well, or on waking within 9 hours of the sleep midpoint (2026 AHA/ASA, COR 2a). An MRI DWI-FLAIR mismatch supports IVT within 4.5 hours of symptom recognition for unknown-onset stroke.
Who should receive continuous EEG (cEEG) monitoring in the neuro-ICU?
Patients with persistently altered or unexplained mental status - especially after a convulsive seizure without return to baseline, or comatose post-arrest patients. Nonconvulsive seizures and nonconvulsive status epilepticus are common and are missed without cEEG, generally for at least 24-48 hours.
How does an external ventricular drain (EVD) differ from a parenchymal ICP monitor?
An EVD measures ICP AND allows therapeutic CSF drainage - the reference standard - but carries higher infection/hemorrhage risk from ventricular cannulation. A parenchymal monitor is easier to place with lower complication rates but cannot drain CSF.
How is transcranial Doppler used to detect vasospasm after aneurysmal SAH?
Elevated middle cerebral artery mean flow velocity plus a Lindegaard ratio (MCA velocity divided by extracranial ICA velocity) above 3 suggests vasospasm; a ratio above 6 suggests severe vasospasm rather than hyperemia, which also raises MCA velocity.
What do brain tissue oxygen (PbtO2) and jugular bulb saturation (SjvO2) monitoring add beyond ICP alone?
They detect regional or global cerebral ischemia even when ICP is normal. A PbtO2 below roughly 20 mmHg or SjvO2 below 50-55% signals inadequate oxygen delivery relative to demand, prompting optimization of CPP, oxygenation, or sedation.
What prerequisites must be confirmed before starting a clinical brain death evaluation?
An established, irreversible cause of catastrophic brain injury; exclusion of confounders (sedating or paralytic drugs, severe metabolic/endocrine derangement, hypothermia); and, in adults, SBP of at least 100 mmHg and MAP of at least 75 mmHg with a core temperature of at least 36°C (2023 AAN/AAP/CNS/SCCM consensus guideline).
What apnea-test results are consistent with brain death in an adult without chronic CO2 retention?
No respiratory effort, arterial pH below 7.30, and PaCO2 of at least 60 mmHg AND at least 20 mmHg above the pre-test baseline (2023 AAN/AAP/CNS/SCCM guideline). Abort for any breath, SBP below 100 or MAP below 75 mmHg, or SpO2 falling below 85%.
What temperature control is recommended for adults who remain comatose after cardiac arrest?
Deliberate temperature control at a constant target of 32-37.5°C (2025 AHA, COR 1), maintained for at least 36 hours in total (COR 2a). TTM2 found 33°C no better than normothermia with fever prevention (≤37.5°C); ERC-ESICM 2025 advises actively preventing fever for at least 72 hours.
What ICP and CPP thresholds guide treatment of intracranial hypertension after severe TBI?
Treat sustained ICP above 22 mmHg (BTF 4th ed., Level IIB); target CPP 60-70 mmHg, with the optimal value within that range depending on the patient's autoregulatory status. Avoid aggressively pushing CPP above 70 with fluids/pressors due to ARDS risk.
What IV thrombolytic dose and time window apply to acute ischemic stroke per the current AHA/ASA guideline?
Alteplase 0.9 mg/kg (max 90 mg; 10% bolus, remainder over 60 minutes) or tenecteplase 0.25 mg/kg as a single IV bolus (max 25 mg), within 4.5 hours of onset for eligible disabling deficits - the 2026 guideline lists both as Class 1 options.
What blood pressure targets apply before and after reperfusion therapy for ischemic stroke?
Lower BP below 185/110 mmHg before IVT and keep it below 180/105 mmHg for at least 24 hours after. After IVT, targeting SBP below 140 gives no benefit (2026 AHA/ASA, COR 3: No Benefit); after successful thrombectomy recanalization, SBP below 140 for 72 hours is harmful (COR 3: Harm).
What are the current time windows for mechanical thrombectomy in large-vessel occlusion stroke?
Anterior ICA/M1 occlusion with NIHSS ≥6 and prestroke mRS 0-1: EVT within 6 hours for ASPECTS 3-10, and at 6-24 hours for ASPECTS ≥6 (or 3-5 if age <80 without mass effect) (2026 AHA/ASA, COR 1). Basilar occlusion: EVT within 24 hours if NIHSS ≥10 and PC-ASPECTS ≥6.
When is decompressive hemicraniectomy considered after malignant hemispheric infarction?
For large MCA-territory infarction with progressive midline shift or herniation despite maximal medical therapy, typically within 48 hours of onset in patients under about 60 years - pooled trial data show reduced mortality, though survivors often have significant residual disability.
What is the current acute blood pressure target for spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage?
In mild-to-moderate ICH presenting with SBP 150-220 mmHg, lowering to a target of 140 mmHg and keeping it within 130-150 mmHg may be reasonable (2022 AHA/ASA, COR 2b). Lowering SBP below 130 mmHg is potentially harmful (COR 3: Harm). Start within 2 hours of onset and reach target within 1 hour.
When should a spontaneous cerebellar hemorrhage be surgically evacuated?
Immediately, with or without an EVD, if the patient is deteriorating neurologically, has brainstem compression or hydrocephalus from ventricular obstruction, or the hematoma volume is at least 15 mL - in preference to medical management alone to reduce mortality (2022 AHA/ASA ICH guideline, COR 1).
What clinical grading scales risk-stratify aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage on presentation?
Hunt-Hess and the WFNS scale grade clinical severity from GCS/exam findings; the modified Fisher scale grades hemorrhage burden on CT to predict delayed cerebral ischemia risk. Higher grades on either scale type correlate with worse functional outcome.
What is the nimodipine regimen for aneurysmal SAH, and when does delayed cerebral ischemia risk peak?
Enteral nimodipine 60 mg every 4 hours for 21 days is given to all aneurysmal SAH patients regardless of vasospasm status (2023 AHA/ASA). Delayed cerebral ischemia risk peaks between days 4 and 14 after the bleed - the window for closest monitoring.
How do epidural and subdural hematomas differ in mechanism and classic CT appearance?
Epidural: usually arterial (middle meningeal artery) after temporal skull fracture, biconvex/lentiform, does not cross suture lines, tends to expand faster. Subdural: venous (bridging veins), crescent-shaped, can cross suture lines - epidural typically needs more urgent evacuation.
What mean arterial pressure goal is recommended after acute traumatic spinal cord injury, and for how long?
The 2024 AO Spine/Praxis guideline suggests augmenting MAP to at least 75-80 mmHg but not above 90-95 mmHg for 3-7 days (weak recommendation), replacing the older AANS/CNS target of 85-90 mmHg for 7 days. Avoid hypotension (SBP below 90 mmHg).
What is the modern operational definition of convulsive status epilepticus used to trigger treatment?
A single continuous convulsive seizure lasting 5 minutes or longer, OR two or more seizures without full return to baseline consciousness between them - treatment begins at this 5-minute mark rather than waiting for the older 30-minute definition.
What are the first-line benzodiazepine options and doses for convulsive status epilepticus?
IM midazolam 10 mg (over 40 kg) as a single dose, IV lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg (max 4 mg, may repeat once), or IV diazepam 0.15-0.2 mg/kg (max 10 mg, may repeat once) - AES 2016 guideline, all three considered equivalent first-line options.
What bedside respiratory measurements predict impending respiratory failure in Guillain-Barre syndrome?
The '20/30/40 rule': vital capacity under 20 mL/kg, maximum inspiratory pressure less negative than -30 cmH2O, or maximum expiratory pressure under 40 cmH2O - any one predicts high risk of needing mechanical ventilation and should prompt ICU-level monitoring or elective intubation.
Is routine prophylactic antiseizure medication recommended after elective craniotomy?
Evidence does not support routine long-term prophylaxis in patients without a prior seizure history; when used at all, it is typically limited to a brief perioperative course. Antiseizure drugs are indicated for patients who actually have a seizure, not as blanket prophylaxis.
What should be suspected when a post-craniotomy patient develops worsening headache with clear rhinorrhea?
A CSF leak, with possible associated pneumocephalus. Clear rhinorrhea or otorrhea after skull-base or transsphenoidal surgery raises meningitis risk and often needs urgent evaluation; beta-2 transferrin testing of the fluid confirms CSF when the diagnosis is uncertain.
What is the most common serious complication of a prolonged external ventricular drain, and how is risk reduced?
Ventriculitis/CSF infection, with risk rising after roughly 5-7 days of catheterization. Risk is reduced with sterile insertion technique, antibiotic-impregnated catheters, and minimizing unnecessary manipulation - not by routine scheduled catheter exchange, which does not reliably lower infection rates.
What is the 'self-fulfilling prophecy' concern in early neuroprognostication after severe brain injury?
If clinicians predict a poor outcome too early and withdraw life-sustaining therapy, the prediction becomes self-confirming. Avoid early limitation of care based on a single finding or severity score; after cardiac arrest, multimodal prognostication (exam, EEG, SSEP, biomarkers, imaging) is deferred to at least 72 hours after ROSC or normothermia (2025 AHA).
What is the key difference between donation after brain death (DBD) and donation after circulatory death (DCD)?
In DBD, death is declared by neurologic criteria while circulation and organ support continue until procurement. In DCD, death is declared after circulatory arrest following withdrawal of life-sustaining therapy - organ ischemia time and eligible organs differ between the two pathways.
Frequently Asked Questions
Which boards administer the ABIM Neurocritical Care exam, and how is it delivered?
The exam is jointly developed by the American Board of Anesthesiology, American Board of Emergency Medicine, ABIM, American Board of Neurological Surgery, and American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology (ABPN). ABPN administers a single exam to candidates from all five boards at the same time in the same Pearson VUE testing centers - internists take the identical exam as candidates from the other boards.
How many questions are on the exam and how long does it take?
270 one-best-answer multiple-choice questions in five 54-question sections, per ABPN's Content Specifications and Format and Scoring documents. Scheduled testing time is 320 minutes (310 minutes for the questions plus 10 minutes for the nondisclosure agreement/tutorial and end-of-exam survey), with up to 40 additional minutes of optional pooled break time.
What does the ABIM Neurocritical Care exam cost?
ABIM's current Exam Fees & Refund Policies page lists $2,995 for Neurocritical Care initial certification (the same tier as Transplant Hepatology, Adult Congenital Heart Disease, Advanced Heart Failure and Transplant Cardiology, Clinical Cardiac Electrophysiology, and Interventional Cardiology). A $400 late-registration fee and $500 international test-center fee can apply. Confirm current pricing directly with ABIM.
What content domains are tested, and how are they weighted?
Per the ABPN Content Specifications: Principles of Neurocritical Care 42-48%, Diagnostic Studies and Procedural Skills 13-17%, Neurocritical Care Diseases 27-33%, Neurosurgical and Perioperative Complications 3-7%, and Ethics/Research/Practice-Based Learning 3-7%. No single administration tests every listed topic in the outline.
What is the passing score for the ABIM Neurocritical Care exam?
ABPN does not publish a percentage cut score. Examinees receive a standard score for the total test and must meet an acceptable, criterion-referenced level of performance; there is no predefined passing rate for any group of candidates, and a diagnostic subtopic report is also provided.
How often is the exam offered, and what happens if I don't pass?
The Neurocritical Care Certification Examination was offered in 2021 and 2022 and is now administered every other year (2024, 2026; next in 2028). A candidate who does not pass reapplies for the next scheduled administration. No fixed retest waiting period is published, and ABPN states there is currently no limit on the number of times an applicant may apply.
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