5.2 Sharpe Ratio and Risk-Adjusted Performance
Key Takeaways
- Sharpe ratio = (portfolio return − rf) / standard deviation of portfolio return; it measures excess return per unit of total risk.
- A higher Sharpe ratio means better risk-adjusted performance; raw return alone can mislead when volatility differs.
- Compare Sharpe ratios across funds or periods only when return and risk are measured consistently (same currency, horizon, and methodology).
- Sharpe uses total risk (SD), while CAPM/beta focus on systematic risk—know which tool answers which question.
- UITF fact sheets and marketing conversations should not crown a high-return equity fund “best” without checking volatility and risk-adjusted results.
From raw return to risk-adjusted return
Clients—and sometimes sales staff—rank UITFs by who returned the most last year. That ranking is incomplete. A fund that earned 18% with wild NAVPU swings may have delivered worse risk-adjusted results than a fund that earned 12% with moderate volatility. The Sharpe ratio is the classic exam metric that formalizes this idea.
Module 1 expects you to define Sharpe, compute simple examples, interpret “higher is better,” and contrast Sharpe with raw return and with beta/CAPM thinking.
The Sharpe ratio formula
Sharpe ratio = (Rp − rf) / σp
| Symbol | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Rp | Portfolio (or fund) return over the measurement period |
| rf | Risk-free rate over the same period |
| (Rp − rf) | Excess return (return above the risk-free rate) |
| σp | Standard deviation of the portfolio’s returns (total volatility) over the period |
In words: how much excess return did you earn for each unit of total risk you took?
Units and practical notes
- If returns and rf are annualized percentages and SD is annualized, Sharpe is an annualized ratio (common presentation).
- If you mix monthly returns with an annual rf, the ratio is meaningless—consistent period is required.
- Sharpe is usually reported as a number (e.g., 0.80 or 1.25), not as a peso amount.
- Negative Sharpe means the portfolio earned less than rf (or a loss relative to rf) while still taking volatility—poor risk-adjusted outcome for that window.
Why divide by standard deviation?
Standard deviation (SD) measures total return variability—both systematic and unsystematic swings. For a single fund’s historical performance, total volatility is what the client felt in NAVPU. Sharpe therefore asks: was the ride worth the excess return?
| High raw return + very high SD | May produce a mediocre Sharpe |
|---|---|
| Moderate raw return + low SD | May produce a strong Sharpe |
| Return ≈ rf with any SD | Excess ≈ 0 → Sharpe ≈ 0 |
| Return < rf | Excess negative → negative Sharpe |
Worked numerical examples
Assume the peso risk-free rate rf = 5% for the year (illustrative).
Fund A — Equity UITF
- Rp = 15%
- σp = 20%
- Excess = 15% − 5% = 10%
- Sharpe = 10% / 20% = 0.50
Fund B — Multi-asset / balanced UITF
- Rp = 11%
- σp = 10%
- Excess = 11% − 5% = 6%
- Sharpe = 6% / 10% = 0.60
Raw return winner: Fund A (15% > 11%).
Risk-adjusted winner: Fund B (Sharpe 0.60 > 0.50).
This is the exam’s favorite contrast: higher return ≠ better Sharpe.
Fund C — Money-market UITF
- Rp = 5.5%
- σp = 1%
- Excess = 0.5%
- Sharpe = 0.5% / 1% = 0.50
Fund C’s Sharpe matches Fund A’s in this toy example even though absolute return is much lower—because risk was tiny. Real money-market SDs and spreads over rf vary with the rate cycle; the teaching point is the ratio structure, not a claim that MM funds always match equity Sharpes.
Fund D — Volatile equity year
- Rp = 8%
- σp = 25%
- Excess = 3%
- Sharpe = 3% / 25% = 0.12
High volatility with modest excess return produces a weak Sharpe—common after a choppy equity market year.
Comparison table
| Fund | Rp | rf | Excess | σp | Sharpe | Raw rank | Sharpe rank |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A Equity | 15% | 5% | 10% | 20% | 0.50 | 1 | 2 (tie C) |
| B Balanced | 11% | 5% | 6% | 10% | 0.60 | 2 | 1 |
| C Money market | 5.5% | 5% | 0.5% | 1% | 0.50 | 4 | 2 (tie A) |
| D Volatile equity | 8% | 5% | 3% | 25% | 0.12 | 3 | 4 |
Higher is better — with caveats
Interpretation rule: All else equal, the higher the Sharpe ratio, the better the historical risk-adjusted performance.
Caveats for UCP / real UITF conversations:
- Past ≠ future. A high trailing Sharpe can collapse in the next bear market.
- Apples to apples. Compare funds with similar mandates when possible (two equity funds) before crowning a “best fund in the bank.”
- Different risk types. A bond fund’s SD is driven by rates and credit; an equity fund’s SD is driven by markets. Sharpe still ranks risk-adjusted return but does not say the risks feel the same to every client.
- Leverage and outliers. Extreme strategies can distort SD and Sharpe; standard UITF long-only products are the exam baseline.
- Not a suitability score. A high-Sharpe equity fund can still be unsuitable for a conservative retiree who cannot tolerate drawdowns.
Sharpe vs raw return (client script)
Weak pitch: “Equity Fund X returned 20%—best in class.”
Better pitch: “Equity Fund X returned 20%, but its volatility was also high. On a Sharpe (return above the risk-free rate per unit of volatility) basis, Balanced Fund Y actually delivered more reward per unit of risk last year. Which matters more depends on your risk profile and time horizon.”
That language supports CSA-aligned selling and reduces the temptation to chase last year’s raw winner into an unsuitable equity UITF.
Sharpe vs CAPM / beta (do not confuse the tools)
| Tool | Core question | Risk in the denominator / model |
|---|---|---|
| CAPM | What return should this asset offer given its beta? | Systematic risk (β) |
| Sharpe | How much excess return did this portfolio deliver per unit of total volatility? | Total risk (SD) |
| Raw return | How much did value change? | Ignores risk |
- CAPM is primarily a pricing / required-return model looking forward (or as a benchmark framework).
- Sharpe is primarily an ex-post performance statistic (can also be used with expected inputs, but exams stress historical interpretation).
- A fund can have β ≈ 1 (market-like CAPM expected return) yet a poor Sharpe if it underperformed with full market volatility.
Connecting to equity and balanced UITF risk
Philippine equity UITFs (≥80% equities) typically show higher SD and higher potential excess return over long horizons than money-market funds. Whether their Sharpe is attractive depends on how much extra return actually showed up versus the extra volatility.
Multi-asset / balanced UITFs often aim for a middle path: lower equity beta and lower SD than pure equity, with excess return that may produce competitive Sharpes in mixed markets. Interest-rate shocks can still hurt the bond sleeve (mark-to-market), so balanced-fund SD is not “equity risk only.”
Marketing takeaway for TOAP UCP ethics and sales modules later: risk-adjusted metrics support honest comparison; they do not replace RDS, plan rules, fees, liquidity, and suitability.
Limitations (exam-aware)
- Assumes SD is the right risk measure — clients may care more about downside or loss of principal than two-way volatility.
- Sensitive to the sample period — bull-market Sharpes look great; include a crisis year and ranks flip.
- rf choice matters — wrong currency or wrong horizon for rf breaks the excess-return numerator.
- Non-normal returns — large crashes make SD an incomplete risk story; still the standard UCP formula.
- Cannot invent PDIC protection — no Sharpe number turns a UITF into a deposit.
Exam traps for this section
- Forgetting to subtract rf — numerator is excess return, not raw Rp alone.
- Putting SD in the numerator — SD is the denominator.
- Thinking lower Sharpe is better — higher is better for risk-adjusted performance.
- Equating highest return with highest Sharpe — opposite rankings are classic MCQ traps.
- Using beta in the Sharpe formula — Sharpe uses standard deviation, not beta.
Mini decision tree
- Need required return given market risk? → CAPM / beta.
- Need historical reward per unit of total risk? → Sharpe.
- Client only quotes last year’s %? → Reframe with excess return and volatility.
- Negative excess return? → Sharpe is negative; risk was not compensated in that window.
What is the correct formula for the Sharpe ratio of a portfolio?
Portfolio X returned 14% with SD of 16%. Portfolio Y returned 10% with SD of 8%. If rf = 4%, which statement is correct?
For risk-adjusted performance comparison, a higher Sharpe ratio indicates:
How does the Sharpe ratio differ from CAPM in the type of risk it emphasizes?