Section 14.2: Infectious Skin Conditions
Key Takeaways
- Non-purulent cellulitis is primarily caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and managed with oral cephalexin; purulent cellulitis warrants MRSA coverage with TMP-SMX or doxycycline.
- Herpes Zoster presents as painful, unilateral dermatomal vesicles; Hutchinson's sign (tip of nose) denotes CN V1 involvement, which requires urgent ophthalmology consult.
- Scabies is caused by Sarcoptes scabiei burrows; manage with topical permethrin 5% cream applied neck-to-toe, repeated in 7 days, alongside treating all close contacts.
- Tinea capitis presents with scaly alopecia and black dots, requiring oral griseofulvin (taken with fatty meals) as topical antifungals do not penetrate the hair follicle.
- Tinea versicolor is a Malassezia furfur yeast overgrowth presenting as hypopigmented macules with a spaghetti-and-meatballs pattern on KOH prep.
Why This Matters for the PANCE
Infectious dermatopathology represents a significant portion of family medicine and emergency department visits. You must distinguish bacterial, viral, fungal, and parasitic skin infections, map them to their primary pathogens, and select first-line antimicrobial therapies.
Cellulitis and Erysipelas
Cellulitis and erysipelas are bacterial infections of the skin layers, but they differ in depth, margins, and typical pathogens.
- Pathophysiology and Pathogens:
- Non-purulent Cellulitis: A deep infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues, most commonly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus), followed by S. aureus.
- Purulent Cellulitis: Associated with purulent drainage, fluctuance, or an abscess. The primary pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus, including Methicillin-Resistant S. aureus (MRSA).
- Erysipelas: A superficial infection of the upper dermis and lymphatic channels, almost exclusively caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep).
- Clinical Presentation:
- Cellulitis: Localized erythema, warmth, edema, and tenderness. The borders are ill-defined and flat. Systemic symptoms are usually mild or absent.
- Erysipelas: Bright red, warm, edematous plaque with sharply demarcated, raised, elevated borders. It classically affects the face or lower extremities, presenting with acute-onset high fever and chills.
- Clinical Management:
- Non-purulent Cellulitis & Erysipelas: First-line oral therapy targets Streptococcus with cephalexin (500 mg four times daily) or dicloxacillin. Clindamycin is preferred for penicillin allergies.
- Purulent Cellulitis: First-line oral therapy must cover MRSA with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), doxycycline, or clindamycin.
- Severe/Systemic: Requires IV antibiotics such as cefazolin, ceftriaxone, or vancomycin.
Herpes Zoster (Shingles)
Herpes zoster is the reactivation of latent Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) in the sensory dorsal root ganglia.
- Clinical Presentation: Typically begins with a prodrome of dermatomal pain, burning, or paresthesias, followed by clustered vesicles on an erythematous base in a unilateral, dermatomal distribution that does not cross the midline (most commonly thoracic or lumbar).
- High-Yield Clinical Syndromes and Red Flags:
- Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Reactivation in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V1). The presence of vesicles on the tip, side, or root of the nose (Hutchinson's sign) indicates nasociliary nerve involvement, which is an ophthalmic emergency requiring immediate referral to prevent permanent blindness.
- Ramsay Hunt Syndrome: Reactivation in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve (CN VII). Presents with facial paralysis, ear pain, and vesicles in the external auditory canal.
- Diagnostic Workup: Primarily clinical. PCR of vesicle fluid is the most sensitive and specific confirmatory test.
- Clinical Management:
- Antiviral Therapy: Oral valacyclovir (1000 mg three times daily) or acyclovir (800 mg five times daily) should be initiated within 72 hours of rash onset to accelerate healing and reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
- Post-Herpetic Neuralgia (PHN): Dermatomal pain persisting more than 90 days after rash onset. Managed with gabapentin, pregabalin, or tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs).
Scabies
Scabies is a highly contagious skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei.
- Pathophysiology: The female mite burrows into the stratum corneum to lay eggs, triggering a delayed Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mite, eggs, and feces.
- Clinical Presentation: Intense pruritus, characteristically worse at night. Examination reveals excoriated papules and pathognomonic linear burrows, typically in the finger web spaces, wrists, elbows, axillae, beltline, and male genitalia.
- Diagnostic Workup: Skin scraping of a burrow suspended in mineral oil showing mites, eggs, or feces under light microscopy.
- Clinical Management:
- First-line Therapy: Topical permethrin 5% cream applied thoroughly from the neck down, left on for 8-14 hours, then washed off. Treatment must be repeated in 7 days to kill newly hatched mites.
- Alternative/Severe: Oral ivermectin is indicated for outbreaks or crusted (Norwegian) scabies.
- Environmental Control: Treat all household contacts simultaneously. Wash all clothing and bedding in hot water and dry on high heat.
Dermatophytosis and Tinea Versicolor
- Tinea Corporis (Ringworm): Annular, erythematous plaque with a raised, scaly, active border and central clearing. KOH prep shows septate, branching hyphae. Treated with topical azoles.
- Tinea Capitis: Scalp hair follicle infection presenting with scaly patches, alopecia, and 'black dots' (broken hair shafts). Oral griseofulvin is first-line because topical agents cannot penetrate the hair follicle. Griseofulvin should be taken with a fatty meal to enhance absorption. Monitor CBC and LFTs for prolonged treatment.
- Tinea Versicolor: Overgrowth of the commensal yeast Malassezia furfur (not a dermatophyte). Presents as hypo- or hyperpigmented scaly macules on the chest and back that fail to tan. KOH prep shows the classic 'spaghetti and meatballs' pattern of short hyphae and round yeast spores. Treated with topical selenium sulfide 2.5% or topical ketoconazole.
Infectious Skin Conditions Comparison Table
| Condition | Primary Pathogen | Key Clinical Findings | Diagnostic Test | First-Line Treatment |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Non-purulent Cellulitis | Streptococcus pyogenes | Warmth, erythema, edema; flat, ill-defined borders | Clinical | Oral Cephalexin |
| Herpes Zoster | Varicella-Zoster Virus | Unilateral, dermatomal vesicular rash; prodromal pain | Clinical (or PCR) | Oral Valacyclovir (within 72 hours) |
| Scabies | Sarcoptes scabiei mite | Nocturnal pruritus, linear burrows in web spaces | Skin scraping in mineral oil | Topical Permethrin 5% (apply neck-down, repeat in 7 days) |
| Tinea Capitis | Trichophyton tonsurans | Scalp alopecia, scaling, 'black dots' | Clinical / KOH | Oral Griseofulvin (requires fatty meals) |
Classic PANCE Traps and Clinical Pearls
- The Tinea Capitis Trap: Never treat tinea capitis with topical antifungals. Oral systemic therapy (griseofulvin or terbinafine) is mandatory.
- Hutchinson's Sign Priority: A vesicle on the tip of the nose during shingles requires an urgent ophthalmology referral, not just starting oral acyclovir.
- Cellulitis Demarcation: Always mark the borders of cellulitis. If the redness spreads rapidly or systemic symptoms worsen, suspect necrotizing fasciitis or treatment failure and escalate care.
A 42-year-old male presents with a painful, red, swollen right lower leg for the past 2 days. He reports scratching an insect bite on his shin a few days ago. On physical examination, there is localized erythema, warmth, and edema extending from the ankle to the mid-calf. The erythema is flat and the borders are poorly defined. There is no fluctuance, purulent drainage, or systemic symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?
A 72-year-old female presents with a painful rash on the left side of her face for the past 24 hours. On physical examination, there are clustered vesicles on an erythematous base on her left forehead, upper eyelid, and a single vesicle on the tip of her nose. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?
An 8-year-old boy is brought to the clinic due to a scaly, itchy patch on his scalp for the past three weeks. On examination, there is a 3 cm circular area of alopecia on the parietal scalp with prominent scaling, follicular inflammation, and several broken hair shafts visible as 'black dots.' What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?