100+ Free PLAB 2 Practice Questions

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A 30-year-old woman presents with a 6-week history of weight loss, heat intolerance, tremor and palpitations. Which focused examination and investigation finding would best support a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism?

Cold intolerance and dry skin

A high TSH with low free T4

Bradycardia with a raised TSH

A fine tremor, tachycardia and a low TSH with raised free T4

to track

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Sample PLAB 2 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your PLAB 2 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 24-year-old woman attends with a 2-day history of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is otherwise well, afebrile and not pregnant. In a PLAB 2 history-taking station, which set of features would most strongly point to an uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection rather than pyelonephritis?

A.Dysuria, frequency and suprapubic discomfort without fever or loin pain

B.Loin pain, rigors and a temperature of 38.5C

C.Frank haematuria with weight loss over 3 months

D.Vaginal discharge with lower abdominal pain and dyspareunia

Explanation: Uncomplicated lower UTI (cystitis) typically presents with dysuria, frequency, urgency and suprapubic discomfort in a non-pregnant woman who is systemically well. Distinguishing it from pyelonephritis (loin pain, fever, rigors) and from other diagnoses is a core data-gathering skill assessed at PLAB 2.

2During a chest pain history station, a 58-year-old man describes central crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw, lasting 40 minutes, with sweating and nausea. To complete a focused cardiac history before the management station, which single additional question is most important to ask?

A.Cardiovascular risk factors such as smoking, diabetes, hypertension and family history

B.Whether he has travelled abroad recently

C.Whether he prefers tablets or capsules

D.His childhood vaccination history

Explanation: Eliciting cardiovascular risk factors (smoking, diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia and family history) is essential to assess the probability of acute coronary syndrome and frames the rest of the consultation. This targeted data gathering directly informs risk stratification at FY2 level.

3You are asked to interpret an ECG in a station. A 70-year-old man with chest pain has ST-segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which coronary territory and management pathway does this most likely represent?

A.Inferior STEMI; activate the primary PCI pathway urgently

B.Anterior STEMI; arrange elective outpatient angiography

C.Lateral NSTEMI; discharge with GP follow-up

D.Pericarditis; reassure and send home

Explanation: ST elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) indicates an inferior STEMI, usually from right coronary artery occlusion. It is a time-critical emergency requiring immediate activation of the primary percutaneous coronary intervention pathway. Correct ECG interpretation and onward action are assessed in data-gathering and management domains.

4In a venepuncture practical station using an anatomical arm model, after applying the tourniquet and cleaning the site, which step demonstrates correct and safe technique?

A.Insert the needle bevel-up at roughly 15 to 30 degrees over the selected vein

B.Insert the needle bevel-down at 90 degrees to the skin

C.Leave the tourniquet on for the full duration and re-use the same needle

D.Recap the needle by hand after withdrawal before disposing of it

Explanation: Correct venepuncture technique uses a bevel-up needle inserted at a shallow 15 to 30 degree angle along the line of the vein. The tourniquet is released before withdrawal and the needle is never recapped. Demonstrating safe practical procedure technique is directly assessed in the data-gathering, technical and assessment skills domain.

5A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of low mood, anhedonia and early-morning waking. To complete a focused depression history safely in a PLAB 2 station, which area must you always explore before closing the consultation?

A.Risk of self-harm and suicidal ideation

B.Her preferred holiday destinations

C.Her opinion on the NHS waiting list

D.Whether she watches television in the evenings

Explanation: A safe psychiatric history mandates direct assessment of risk, including thoughts of self-harm, suicidal ideation, plans and protective factors. Omitting risk assessment in a mental health station is an unsafe practice that examiners penalise heavily. This is core data gathering in the UK consultation model.

6You are asked to examine the abdomen of a simulated patient in a PLAB 2 station. Which sequence reflects the correct order of examination?

A.Palpation, then inspection, then auscultation, then percussion

B.Inspection, then auscultation, then palpation, then percussion

C.Inspection, then palpation, then percussion, then auscultation

D.Auscultation, then percussion, then inspection, then palpation

Explanation: Standard abdominal examination follows inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation. Some clinicians auscultate before palpation, but the conventional taught sequence for PLAB 2 is inspect, palpate, percuss, then auscultate. Demonstrating a systematic, recognised order is rewarded in the technical assessment domain.

7A 65-year-old man with COPD attends with worsening breathlessness. In the data-gathering station you must interpret an arterial blood gas: pH 7.30, PaCO2 8.0 kPa, PaO2 7.5 kPa, HCO3 28 mmol/L. How would you best describe this result?

A.Acute type 2 respiratory failure with respiratory acidosis

B.Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis

C.Type 1 respiratory failure with normal CO2

D.Acute respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation

Explanation: A low pH with a high PaCO2 and low PaO2 indicates type 2 respiratory failure with a respiratory acidosis, common in a COPD exacerbation. The only mildly raised bicarbonate suggests the acidosis is acute or acute-on-chronic. Accurate blood gas interpretation guides oxygen and ventilation decisions.

8A 19-year-old presents with a severe acute asthma attack. In a PLAB 2 assessment station, which finding indicates a LIFE-THREATENING attack rather than a moderate or severe one?

A.Peak flow 60 percent of predicted with normal speech

B.Oxygen saturation 95 percent on air

C.A silent chest with oxygen saturation of 90 percent and exhaustion

D.Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute

Explanation: A silent chest, cyanosis, exhaustion, hypotension, altered consciousness or SpO2 below 92 percent are markers of life-threatening asthma per BTS/SIGN and NICE guidance. Recognising these features mandates immediate senior and critical care involvement. Severity stratification is a key assessment skill.

9In a station, you are required to calculate a drug dose. A child weighing 20 kg requires paracetamol at 15 mg/kg per dose. What single oral dose should you prescribe?

A.300 mg

B.150 mg

C.450 mg

D.600 mg

Explanation: 15 mg/kg multiplied by 20 kg equals 300 mg per dose, consistent with paediatric paracetamol dosing in the BNF for Children. Accurate weight-based dose calculation is an explicitly assessed practical skill in PLAB 2. Always double-check paediatric calculations before prescribing.

10A 45-year-old woman attends with a 6-month history of a unilateral, throbbing headache with photophobia, nausea and visual aura, lasting hours and relieved by sleep. Which diagnosis does this history most strongly support?

A.Migraine with aura

B.Subarachnoid haemorrhage

C.Giant cell (temporal) arteritis

D.Tension-type headache

Explanation: Recurrent unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia, nausea and visual aura, relieved by sleep, is classic for migraine with aura. Eliciting the temporal pattern, associated symptoms and aura is the data-gathering skill that distinguishes primary headaches. Red-flag features would prompt a different pathway.

About the PLAB 2 Exam

PLAB 2 is the Clinical and Professional Skills Assessment (CPSA), the second part of the GMC's PLAB pathway for international medical graduates and is aligned to the UK Medical Licensing Assessment (UKMLA) CPSA standard. It is a 16-station OSCE held at the GMC's Clinical Assessment Centre in Manchester, each station lasting 8 minutes. Candidates are marked at the standard expected of a doctor starting Foundation Year 2 in the NHS.

Assessment

An OSCE of 16 clinical scenarios (stations), each lasting 8 minutes, plus at least two rest stations; scenarios reflect real settings such as a mock consultation or an acute ward.

Time Limit

Approximately 3 hours total (16 stations x 8 minutes with changeover and rest stations)

Passing Score

No fixed percentage. Pass marks are set per exam by the borderline regression method; you must meet or exceed the total score and pass a minimum of 10 of the 16 stations.

Exam Fee

GBP 1,036 for bookings from 1 April 2026 (previously GBP 986), payable to the GMC (General Medical Council (GMC))

PLAB 2 Exam Content Outline

33%

Data gathering, technical and assessment skills

History taking, physical examination, practical procedures (venepuncture, cannulation, blood pressure, CPR, catheterisation, cervical smear, suturing) and interpreting ECGs, X-rays, blood gases and other investigations to reach a diagnosis.

33%

Clinical management skills

Formulating a diagnosis, explaining it to the patient and building a safe, evidence-based management plan consistent with NICE, BNF and UK NHS practice at Foundation Year 2 level.

34%

Interpersonal skills

Building rapport, open and closed questioning, shared decision-making, breaking bad news, consent and confidentiality, communicating with relatives and colleagues, and demonstrating professionalism and GMC ethical principles.

How to Pass the PLAB 2 Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: No fixed percentage. Pass marks are set per exam by the borderline regression method; you must meet or exceed the total score and pass a minimum of 10 of the 16 stations.
Assessment: An OSCE of 16 clinical scenarios (stations), each lasting 8 minutes, plus at least two rest stations; scenarios reflect real settings such as a mock consultation or an acute ward.
Time limit: Approximately 3 hours total (16 stations x 8 minutes with changeover and rest stations)
Exam fee: GBP 1,036 for bookings from 1 April 2026 (previously GBP 986), payable to the GMC

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

PLAB 2 Study Tips from Top Performers

1Practise full 8-minute consultations under timed conditions, deliberately leaving time to explain the diagnosis, agree a management plan and safety-net, so you score across all three domains in every station.

2Ground your management answers in current UK standards (NICE guidelines, the BNF and GMC Good Medical Practice) at Foundation Year 2 level, since examiners expect safe, NHS-appropriate practice.

3Rehearse high-frequency communication tasks such as breaking bad news, consent, confidentiality, dealing with angry or distressed patients and structured handover (SBAR), and confirm understanding with teach-back.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many stations are in PLAB 2 and how long is each?

The GMC states PLAB 2 is made up of 16 scenarios (stations), each lasting eight minutes, with at least two rest stations; the whole exam takes around three hours.

What domains is PLAB 2 marked against?

Each station is marked across three domains: data gathering, technical and assessment skills; clinical management skills; and interpersonal skills. Examiners also give a standard judgement (Unsatisfactory, Borderline, Satisfactory or Good) used to set the pass mark.

What score do I need to pass PLAB 2?

There is no fixed pass mark. The GMC uses the borderline regression method to set the pass mark for each exam; you must meet or exceed the required total score and pass a minimum of 10 stations.

How much does PLAB 2 cost and where is it held?

From 1 April 2026 the PLAB 2 fee is GBP 1,036 (up from GBP 986). It is held in person at the GMC's Clinical Assessment Centre in Manchester, UK.