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100+ Free MRCPCH AKP Practice Questions

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A 6-year-old weighing 20 kg needs paracetamol for fever. The recommended oral dose is 15 mg/kg per dose, up to four times daily. What is the correct single dose and the maximum number of doses in 24 hours?

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Sample MRCPCH AKP Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your MRCPCH AKP exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 6-week-old infant presents with a 4-day history of coryza followed by paroxysmal coughing fits ending in vomiting, with episodes of apnoea and colour change. The infant is afebrile. A characteristic inspiratory whoop is not heard. Which single investigation is most likely to confirm the diagnosis at this stage?
A.Per-nasal swab for Bordetella pertussis PCR
B.Blood culture
C.Chest X-ray
D.Serum pertussis IgG
Explanation: In an infant within 2-3 weeks of symptom onset, per-nasal (nasopharyngeal) swab for Bordetella pertussis PCR is the most sensitive confirmatory test. Apnoea and post-tussive vomiting without a whoop are typical of pertussis in young infants, who are at highest risk of complications.
2A 3-year-old child presents with fever for 6 days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, a polymorphous rash, cracked red lips, cervical lymphadenopathy and erythema of the palms. Which investigation is most important to arrange to assess for the principal complication of this condition?
A.Bone marrow aspirate
B.Echocardiogram
C.Lumbar puncture
D.Abdominal ultrasound
Explanation: This is classic Kawasaki disease (5 days of fever plus 4 of 5 principal features). The most serious complication is coronary artery aneurysm, so a baseline echocardiogram is essential, with repeat imaging at intervals. Prompt IVIG and aspirin reduce coronary risk.
3A 14-year-old returns from sub-Saharan Africa with fever, headache and rigors 10 days after arrival. A thick and thin blood film confirms Plasmodium falciparum with a parasitaemia of 3%. He is alert, with no acidosis and a normal lactate. According to UK guidance, what is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
A.Oral chloroquine
B.Intravenous quinine and doxycycline
C.Oral artemether-lumefantrine
D.Intravenous artesunate
Explanation: UK malaria treatment guidelines (2016) classify a parasitaemia greater than 2% in a non-immune patient as a marker of severe falciparum malaria, even without other features. A parasitaemia of 3% therefore mandates parenteral therapy, and IV artesunate is the treatment of choice for severe/complicated falciparum malaria.
4A 4-year-old boy has recurrent severe bacterial infections including two episodes of pneumococcal pneumonia and one of meningococcal sepsis, plus a Neisseria infection. Complement studies show a markedly reduced CH50 with normal C3 and C4. Which immunological abnormality best explains this pattern?
A.X-linked agammaglobulinaemia
B.Chronic granulomatous disease
C.Selective IgA deficiency
D.Terminal complement pathway (C5-C9) deficiency
Explanation: Recurrent Neisserial infections with a low CH50 but normal C3/C4 point to a terminal complement component (membrane attack complex, C5-C9) deficiency. These patients should receive meningococcal vaccination and prompt treatment of infections.
5A 2-year-old child develops generalised urticaria, facial swelling, wheeze and hypotension within minutes of eating peanut. The most appropriate immediate treatment is intramuscular adrenaline. What is the correct dose of 1:1000 adrenaline for this child?
A.150 micrograms (0.15 mL)
B.300 micrograms (0.3 mL)
C.500 micrograms (0.5 mL)
D.50 micrograms (0.05 mL)
Explanation: For anaphylaxis in a child aged 6 months to 6 years, the UK Resuscitation Council dose of IM adrenaline 1:1000 is 150 micrograms (0.15 mL). The dose can be repeated after 5 minutes if there is no improvement.
6A previously well 8-year-old presents with a 3-week history of fever, malaise, anorexia and a new murmur. He had dental treatment 6 weeks ago. Blood cultures grow Streptococcus viridans and an echocardiogram shows a mitral valve vegetation. What is the most appropriate definitive antimicrobial approach?
A.Intravenous aciclovir for 14 days
B.Prolonged intravenous benzylpenicillin (often with gentamicin) for several weeks
C.A single dose of oral amoxicillin
D.Oral flucloxacillin for 7 days
Explanation: This is infective endocarditis caused by viridans streptococci. Treatment requires prolonged (typically 4-6 weeks) intravenous beta-lactam therapy, often combined with gentamicin for synergy, guided by sensitivities and discussed with microbiology and cardiology.
7A 10-year-old presents with a 2-week history of fever, weight loss, night sweats and a chronic cough. A chest X-ray shows right hilar lymphadenopathy and a Mantoux test is strongly positive at 18 mm. There are no neurological signs. Which is the most appropriate initial standard treatment regimen for active pulmonary tuberculosis?
A.Rifampicin and isoniazid for 3 months only
B.Co-amoxiclav for 4 weeks
C.Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for 2 months, then rifampicin and isoniazid for 4 months
D.Isoniazid alone for 6 months
Explanation: Active pulmonary TB is treated with the standard quadruple regimen: 2 months of rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol (intensive phase), followed by 4 months of rifampicin and isoniazid (continuation phase). Contact tracing and notification are also required.
8A 5-year-old with sickle cell disease presents with fever 39.5C, lethargy and tachycardia. He had a fever 2 days ago. Considering the principal infective risk in functional asplenia, which is the single most important immediate management step?
A.Arrange an outpatient review in 48 hours
B.Give oral paracetamol and discharge
C.Await blood culture results before any antibiotics
D.Start broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics covering encapsulated organisms without delay
Explanation: Children with sickle cell disease are functionally asplenic and at high risk of overwhelming sepsis from encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae. Any febrile child with sickle cell disease needs urgent assessment and empirical broad-spectrum IV antibiotics after cultures, not delayed treatment.
9A 7-year-old develops a slapped-cheek facial rash followed by a lacy reticular rash on the limbs, having had a mild febrile illness. She has known hereditary spherocytosis. Her haemoglobin has fallen sharply with a low reticulocyte count. Which organism is responsible and what is the underlying mechanism?
A.Parvovirus B19 causing transient aplastic crisis
B.Measles virus causing immune haemolysis
C.Group A streptococcus causing scarlet fever
D.Epstein-Barr virus causing splenic sequestration
Explanation: Parvovirus B19 infects erythroid precursors and temporarily halts red cell production. In children with a chronic haemolytic anaemia such as hereditary spherocytosis, this causes a transient aplastic crisis with a sharp fall in haemoglobin and a low reticulocyte count.
10A 16-year-old presents with sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and marked fatigue. Examination shows tonsillar exudates and splenomegaly. A monospot test is positive. Which advice is most important to give this patient?
A.Start prophylactic anticoagulation
B.Avoid contact sports for several weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture
C.Take a prolonged course of amoxicillin
D.Return immediately to competitive rugby once the throat settles
Explanation: Infectious mononucleosis (EBV) commonly causes splenomegaly, and contact or collision sports should be avoided for several weeks because of the risk of splenic rupture. Amoxicillin should be avoided as it can precipitate a florid rash in EBV infection.

About the MRCPCH AKP Exam

The MRCPCH Applied Knowledge in Practice (AKP) is the most advanced of the three RCPCH theory exams, testing applied clinical decision-making at the level of a doctor entering specialty training (ST4). It comprises 120 single best answer questions across two 2.5-hour papers and includes data interpretation, imaging, ECGs and evidence-based medicine.

Assessment

Two computer-based papers of 60 single best answer questions each (120 total), sat on the same day, formerly known as MRCPCH Part 2.

Time Limit

Two papers of 2 hours 30 minutes each (5 hours total), taken on the same day

Passing Score

Set per diet by modified Angoff standard setting; there is no fixed published percentage pass mark. The standard-setting process changed from the 2025.2 (April 2025) diet.

Exam Fee

International AKP fee around GBP 929 for 2026 diets; the UK and Ireland fee is lower and reviewed annually. Check the current fee on the RCPCH booking system. (Royal College of Paediatrics and Child Health (RCPCH))

MRCPCH AKP Exam Content Outline

38-50%

High-weighting subspecialties (Infection/Immunology/Allergy, Neonatology, Respiratory Medicine with ENT)

The three most heavily tested areas: serious infection and sepsis, allergy/immunodeficiency, neonatal medicine, and acute and chronic respiratory and ENT disease.

25-33%

Core subspecialties (Cardiology, Diabetes, Endocrinology/Growth, Emergency, Gastroenterology, Haematology/Oncology, Metabolism, Nephro-urology, Neurodisability, Neurology, Pharmacology, Safeguarding)

Twelve mid-weighting subspecialties covering acute presentations, chronic disease management, prescribing and child protection.

8-17%

Supporting areas (Adolescent Health, Behavioural Medicine, Dermatology, Ethics and Law, Genetics, Musculoskeletal, Nutrition, Ophthalmology, Palliative Care, Patient Safety, Science of Practice)

Eleven lower-weighting areas including evidence-based medicine and statistics, ethics and consent, dysmorphology, and patient safety/quality improvement.

How to Pass the MRCPCH AKP Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Set per diet by modified Angoff standard setting; there is no fixed published percentage pass mark. The standard-setting process changed from the 2025.2 (April 2025) diet.
  • Assessment: Two computer-based papers of 60 single best answer questions each (120 total), sat on the same day, formerly known as MRCPCH Part 2.
  • Time limit: Two papers of 2 hours 30 minutes each (5 hours total), taken on the same day
  • Exam fee: International AKP fee around GBP 929 for 2026 diets; the UK and Ireland fee is lower and reviewed annually. Check the current fee on the RCPCH booking system.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

MRCPCH AKP Study Tips from Top Performers

1Use the official RCPCH theory syllabi and weight your revision toward the high-band areas (infection, neonatology and respiratory/ENT) while keeping safeguarding, ethics and EBM/statistics sharp.
2Practise data interpretation under time pressure - blood gases, growth charts, ECGs, X-rays and lab panels appear frequently and reward systematic interpretation.
3Work through scenario-based questions that integrate multiple systems and prescribing, since the AKP rewards applied decision-making rather than isolated recall.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are in the MRCPCH AKP exam and how long is it?

The AKP has 120 single best answer questions, split into two papers of 60 questions each. Each paper lasts 2 hours 30 minutes and both are sat on the same day.

What is the pass mark for the MRCPCH AKP?

There is no fixed percentage pass mark. The pass mark is determined for each exam diet using a modified Angoff standard-setting process, and the method was updated from the 2025.2 (April 2025) diet.

Who runs the AKP and what standard does it test?

The AKP is run by the Royal College of Paediatrics and Child Health (RCPCH). It tests applied clinical knowledge and decision-making at the standard of a doctor entering core specialty (ST4) training and was formerly called MRCPCH Part 2.

Which topics carry the most weight in the AKP?

Per the RCPCH blueprint, Infection/Immunology/Allergy, Neonatology and Respiratory Medicine with ENT fall in the highest band (38-50%), followed by twelve core subspecialties (25-33%) and eleven supporting areas including ethics and evidence-based medicine (8-17%).