100+ Free MFPH Part A (DFPH) Practice Questions

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Which level of disease prevention is represented by a national bowel cancer screening programme that detects disease at an early, asymptomatic stage?

Primordial prevention

Secondary prevention

Tertiary prevention

Primary prevention

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MFPH Part B (OSPHE - Objective Structured Public Health Examination)

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Sample MFPH Part A (DFPH) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your MFPH Part A (DFPH) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A case-control study of pancreatic cancer and coffee drinking finds an odds ratio of 2.5 for heavy coffee drinkers. Investigators later realise that smokers both drink more coffee and have higher pancreatic cancer risk. What term best describes the distortion smoking introduces into the coffee-cancer association?

A.Recall bias

B.Selection bias

C.Confounding

D.Effect modification

Explanation: Confounding occurs when a third variable (smoking) is independently associated with both the exposure (coffee) and the outcome (pancreatic cancer) and is not on the causal pathway, distorting the apparent association. Adjustment (e.g. stratification or multivariable regression) for smoking is needed to obtain the true coffee-cancer effect.

2A new screening test for a disease with 1% prevalence has sensitivity 90% and specificity 90%. Of 1,000 people screened, approximately how many of those who test positive will actually have the disease (positive predictive value)?

A.About 90%

B.About 50%

C.About 8%

D.About 1%

Explanation: Of 1,000 people, 10 have the disease (9 true positives) and 990 do not (99 false positives at 90% specificity). PPV = 9 / (9 + 99) = approximately 8%. This illustrates how low prevalence drives down PPV even with high sensitivity and specificity, a core public-health screening concept.

3In a cohort study, the incidence of myocardial infarction is 30 per 1,000 person-years in the exposed group and 10 per 1,000 person-years in the unexposed group. What is the relative risk?

A.20 per 1,000 person-years

B.0.33

C.0.67

D.3.0

Explanation: Relative risk (rate ratio) is the incidence in the exposed divided by the incidence in the unexposed: 30/10 = 3.0. This means exposed individuals have three times the rate of myocardial infarction compared with the unexposed.

4A trial reports that a statin reduces the absolute risk of a cardiovascular event over 5 years from 10% to 6%. What is the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one event over 5 years?

A.4

B.25

C.16

D.10

Explanation: The absolute risk reduction is 10% minus 6% = 4% (0.04). NNT = 1 / ARR = 1 / 0.04 = 25. So 25 people must be treated for 5 years to prevent one cardiovascular event, a clinically interpretable measure of treatment benefit.

5A randomised controlled trial of a smoking-cessation drug reports a hazard ratio for quitting of 1.8 with a 95% confidence interval of 0.95 to 3.4. How should this result be interpreted at the conventional 5% significance level?

A.The drug significantly increases quitting because the point estimate is 1.8

B.The result is not statistically significant because the confidence interval includes 1

C.The drug significantly reduces quitting

D.The wide interval proves the trial was fraudulent

Explanation: A 95% confidence interval that crosses the null value of 1 for a ratio measure corresponds to a p-value greater than 0.05, so the result is not statistically significant. The point estimate suggests benefit, but the data are compatible with no effect, so larger samples are needed to draw a firm conclusion.

6An investigator wishes to compare the median length of hospital stay between two groups, where the data are markedly right-skewed and the groups are independent. Which statistical test is most appropriate?

A.Independent samples t-test

B.Mann-Whitney U test

C.Paired t-test

D.Pearson correlation

Explanation: The Mann-Whitney U test is a non-parametric test for comparing the distributions of two independent groups, appropriate when data are skewed and the assumptions of the t-test (normality) are not met. It compares ranks rather than means, making it suitable for skewed length-of-stay data.

7A meta-analysis of 12 randomised trials reports an I-squared statistic of 78%. What does this indicate?

A.78% of trials showed a positive effect

B.Substantial heterogeneity between trial results

C.The pooled effect is statistically significant

D.The risk of publication bias is 78%

Explanation: The I-squared statistic quantifies the percentage of total variation across studies that is due to heterogeneity rather than chance. A value of 78% indicates substantial heterogeneity, suggesting trials differ in true effect and that a random-effects model and exploration of causes (subgroups, sensitivity analyses) are warranted.

8A public health team wants to understand patients' lived experiences of accessing mental health services, including their feelings and the meanings they attach to care. Which research approach is most appropriate?

A.A double-blind randomised controlled trial

B.A large cross-sectional survey with closed questions only

C.A retrospective cohort using routine data

D.Semi-structured qualitative interviews with thematic analysis

Explanation: Qualitative methods such as semi-structured interviews analysed thematically are designed to explore meanings, experiences and perspectives in depth. They generate rich understanding of why and how people behave, which closed quantitative instruments cannot capture, and are part of the DFPH research-methods syllabus.

9Which type of bias is MOST likely to be introduced when a case-control study of birth defects asks mothers of affected babies to recall medication use during pregnancy?

A.Lead-time bias

B.Recall bias

C.Immortal time bias

D.Detection bias

Explanation: Recall bias arises because mothers of affected babies are more likely to remember and report exposures such as medication use than mothers of healthy babies, producing differential exposure misclassification. It is a classic threat in case-control studies relying on retrospective self-report.

10A study reports a p-value of 0.03 for the difference in mean blood pressure between two groups. Which statement is the MOST accurate interpretation?

A.There is a 3% probability that the null hypothesis is true

B.If the null hypothesis were true, a difference at least as large as observed would occur 3% of the time

C.There is a 97% chance the alternative hypothesis is true

D.The result is clinically important

Explanation: A p-value is the probability of obtaining a result at least as extreme as that observed, assuming the null hypothesis is true. A p-value of 0.03 means such data would arise 3% of the time under the null; it does not give the probability that any hypothesis is true, nor does it indicate clinical importance.

About the MFPH Part A (DFPH) Exam

The Diplomate Examination (DFPH), passed to gain MFPH Part A, is the first part of the Faculty of Public Health membership examinations. It comprises two written papers sat over two days - Paper I (Knowledge) and Paper II (Skills), each split into A and B - and is predominantly short-answer, testing epidemiology, statistics, disease prevention and control, health protection, health promotion, sociology, economics and public health management.

Assessment

Two written papers over two days, each split into parts A and B: Paper I (Knowledge) IA 6 + IB 4 short-answer questions; Paper II (Skills) IIA 4 critical-appraisal questions + IIB 5 data-interpretation sections.

Time Limit

Paper IA 2h30, Paper IB 1h40, Paper IIA 2h30, Paper IIB 2h00, held over two days.

Passing Score

Angoff-set criterion pass mark plus question-level rules: Papers IA/IB require passing 7 of 10 questions; Paper II requires passing 5 of 9 questions across IIA and IIB with at least 2 in each (from March 2023).

Exam Fee

GBP 835 standard; GBP 710 for registrars and practitioner members (FPH Board fees, effective March 2024). (Faculty of Public Health (FPH))

MFPH Part A (DFPH) Exam Content Outline

34%

Research Methods, Statistics and Epidemiology

Epidemiology, statistical methods, study design and critical appraisal, healthcare needs assessment, evaluation of health and healthcare, and principles of qualitative methods.

33%

Disease Causation and Prevention

Epidemiological paradigms, epidemiology of specific diseases and risk factors, screening and diagnosis, genetics, health behaviour, environment, communicable disease, and health promotion and prevention.

11%

Health Information

Populations and demography, measures of sickness and health, routine data sources and classification, and interpretation of health information.

11%

Medical Sociology, Social Policy and Health Economics

Concepts of health and illness, healthcare systems, equality, equity and policy, and the principles and methods of health economics.

11%

Organisation and Management

Teams and individuals, organisations and structure, management and change, strategy, leadership, finance and management accounting.

How to Pass the MFPH Part A (DFPH) Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Angoff-set criterion pass mark plus question-level rules: Papers IA/IB require passing 7 of 10 questions; Paper II requires passing 5 of 9 questions across IIA and IIB with at least 2 in each (from March 2023).
Assessment: Two written papers over two days, each split into parts A and B: Paper I (Knowledge) IA 6 + IB 4 short-answer questions; Paper II (Skills) IIA 4 critical-appraisal questions + IIB 5 data-interpretation sections.
Time limit: Paper IA 2h30, Paper IB 1h40, Paper IIA 2h30, Paper IIB 2h00, held over two days.
Exam fee: GBP 835 standard; GBP 710 for registrars and practitioner members (FPH Board fees, effective March 2024).

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

MFPH Part A (DFPH) Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master the core quantitative methods first - measures of association (RR, OR, attributable risk), confidence intervals, screening test characteristics and standardisation - because they recur across both the Knowledge and Skills papers.

2Practise timed critical appraisal of journal articles and data-interpretation exercises, since Paper II rewards structured application rather than pure recall and the question-level pass rules are unforgiving.

3Use the official FPH syllabus and Health Knowledge public health textbook to cover the breadth of the five sections, and write concise, structured short-answer responses to model the marking style.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the difference between DFPH and MFPH Part A?

DFPH (Diplomate of the Faculty of Public Health) is the qualification awarded by passing the Diplomate Examination, which is the first of the Faculty of Public Health's two membership examinations - sometimes referred to as Part A. The Final Membership Examination (Part B) follows later for full MFPH membership.

How is the DFPH examination structured?

The DFPH consists of two written papers sat over two days, each split into parts A and B: Paper I (Knowledge) has Paper IA (6 short-answer questions, 2 hours 30 minutes) and Paper IB (4 short-answer questions, 1 hour 40 minutes); Paper II (Skills) has Paper IIA (4 critical-appraisal questions) and Paper IIB (5 data-interpretation sections of 10 marks each).

How is the DFPH pass mark set?

The DFPH is criterion-referenced using an Angoff-set pass mark. For Papers IA and IB candidates must reach the set mark and pass 7 of the 10 questions; for Paper II they must reach the overall Angoff mark and pass 5 of 9 questions across IIA and IIB, with at least 2 passes in each paper (rules from March 2023).

How much does the DFPH exam cost in 2026?

The standard DFPH exam fee is GBP 835, reduced to GBP 710 for Public Health Registrars, Practitioner and International Practitioner members. Fees are set by the FPH Board and took effect in March 2024; candidates may pay in three instalments from July 2025.