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100+ Free FRCOphth Part 2 Oral Practice Questions

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A patient with proliferative diabetic retinopathy has new vessels at the disc and a fresh vitreous haemorrhage, but the retina is still attached. Which treatment is the cornerstone for inducing regression of retinal neovascularisation?

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Sample FRCOphth Part 2 Oral Practice Questions

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1A 68-year-old presents 4 weeks after uneventful phacoemulsification with reduced vision, a hypopyon and worsening pain. OCT shows cystoid macular oedema and the anterior chamber is hazy. Which organism is the most likely cause of this delayed-onset, low-grade post-operative endophthalmitis?
A.Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes
B.Staphylococcus epidermidis
C.Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D.Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: Cutibacterium acnes is the classic cause of chronic, delayed-onset (weeks to months) post-operative endophthalmitis, often sequestered in the capsular bag with a low-grade granulomatous picture and a characteristic white capsular plaque. It responds poorly to vitreous tap-and-inject alone, frequently requiring intracapsular vancomycin or capsulectomy.
2At an OSCE anterior-segment station you examine a patient with a central corneal ulcer, a 2 mm hypopyon and a feathery-edged infiltrate after wearing soft contact lenses in a hot tub. Which investigation is most important to establish the diagnosis before starting treatment?
A.Anterior segment OCT of the lesion
B.Corneal scrape for microscopy, culture and sensitivities
C.Confocal microscopy only
D.Serum inflammatory markers
Explanation: Microbial keratitis requires a corneal scrape for Gram stain, culture and sensitivities before commencing intensive topical antibiotics, as it guides targeted therapy and identifies organisms such as Acanthamoeba, fungi or resistant bacteria. In the UK, central or sight-threatening ulcers are scraped before empirical fortified or fluoroquinolone drops.
3A 24-year-old with progressive blurred vision has scissoring of the retinoscopy reflex, Fleischer ring, Vogt striae and inferior corneal steepening on topography. Both eyes show increasing astigmatism. What is the most appropriate intervention to halt progression at this stage?
A.Penetrating keratoplasty
B.Intrastromal corneal ring segments
C.Corneal collagen cross-linking
D.Rigid gas-permeable contact lenses only
Explanation: Corneal collagen cross-linking (CXL) with riboflavin and UV-A is the established intervention to halt progression of keratoconus by stiffening the corneal stroma, and is indicated in documented progressive disease in a young patient. NICE supports CXL for progressive keratoconus.
4During an OSCE station a patient describes severe ocular pain, photophobia and a small, irregular, painful pupil. Slit-lamp examination shows ciliary flush, anterior chamber cells and keratic precipitates. What is the first-line treatment to relieve symptoms and prevent posterior synechiae in acute anterior uveitis?
A.Topical antihistamine
B.Topical antibiotic drops
C.Systemic aciclovir
D.Topical corticosteroid plus a cycloplegic agent
Explanation: Acute anterior uveitis is treated with intensive topical corticosteroid to control inflammation and a cycloplegic/mydriatic (e.g. cyclopentolate) to relieve ciliary spasm pain and break or prevent posterior synechiae. Underlying systemic associations (e.g. HLA-B27) are sought if recurrent.
5You are shown a slit-lamp video of a cornea with a dendritic epithelial lesion that stains with fluorescein and has terminal end-bulbs. The patient has reduced corneal sensation. What is the most appropriate first-line management?
A.Topical aciclovir 3% ointment or ganciclovir gel
B.Topical corticosteroid monotherapy
C.Therapeutic bandage contact lens
D.Topical fortified gentamicin
Explanation: A true dendritic ulcer with terminal bulbs and reduced corneal sensation is herpes simplex epithelial keratitis, treated with topical antiviral such as aciclovir 3% ointment or ganciclovir 0.15% gel. Topical steroids alone are contraindicated as they worsen epithelial disease.
6A 30-year-old of African heritage has bilateral granulomatous anterior uveitis, mutton-fat keratic precipitates, raised serum ACE and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest imaging. Which complication should you specifically monitor for at the posterior pole?
A.Macular hole
B.Cystoid macular oedema
C.Lacquer cracks
D.Angioid streaks
Explanation: Sarcoid uveitis frequently causes cystoid macular oedema, a leading cause of vision loss in chronic uveitis, and OCT monitoring is essential. Other sarcoid posterior findings include periphlebitis (candle-wax drippings) and choroidal granulomas.
7A patient on long-term topical prostaglandin and beta-blocker therapy presents for cataract surgery. Intraoperatively the pupil dilates poorly and the iris billows and prolapses toward incisions despite no use of tamsulosin. Which preoperative drug history most likely explains intraoperative floppy iris syndrome?
A.A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
B.A topical beta-blocker
C.An alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist
D.A prostaglandin analogue
Explanation: Intraoperative floppy iris syndrome (IFIS) is most strongly associated with systemic alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists such as tamsulosin, used for benign prostatic hyperplasia, which cause iris dilator atony. Even past use can produce IFIS, so a careful drug history is essential and strategies (iris hooks, intracameral phenylephrine) are planned.
8A patient develops acute corneal oedema and Descemet membrane folds two days after cataract surgery, with a clear cause traced to instrument or solution contamination. The graft-like central oedema spares the periphery. What is the most likely diagnosis of this sterile, non-infective post-operative reaction?
A.Fuchs endothelial dystrophy decompensation
B.Acute endophthalmitis
C.Herpes simplex endotheliitis
D.Toxic anterior segment syndrome
Explanation: Toxic anterior segment syndrome (TASS) is an acute sterile inflammation typically within 12-48 hours of anterior segment surgery, caused by contaminants in instruments, solutions or intraocular agents, producing diffuse limbus-to-limbus corneal oedema and anterior chamber reaction that responds to intensive topical steroids. The absence of pain disproportionate to signs and a negative culture distinguish it from endophthalmitis.
9A 55-year-old presents with a chronic, unilateral, red eye, scleral thinning with a bluish hue and severe boring pain that wakes them at night. There is no discharge. Which systemic association most warrants urgent investigation in necrotising scleritis?
A.Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
B.Hay fever
C.Hypertension
D.Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Necrotising scleritis is strongly associated with systemic vasculitides, particularly granulomatosis with polyangiitis (ANCA-associated) and rheumatoid arthritis, which require urgent systemic immunosuppression. Investigation includes ANCA, ANA, RF and inflammatory markers because untreated disease threatens both sight and life.
10A contact-lens wearer has a painful red eye with a ring-shaped corneal infiltrate, radial perineuritis and pain markedly out of proportion to clinical signs, unresponsive to broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which diagnosis must be excluded?
A.Staphylococcal marginal keratitis
B.Acanthamoeba keratitis
C.Adenoviral keratoconjunctivitis
D.Exposure keratopathy
Explanation: Acanthamoeba keratitis classically affects contact-lens wearers with pain disproportionate to signs, radial perineural infiltrates and a ring infiltrate, and is confirmed by corneal scrape, confocal microscopy (double-walled cysts) or culture on non-nutrient agar with E. coli overlay. It is treated with biguanides (PHMB) and diamidines.

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