100+ Free CPM / DPM Part 1 Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CPM / DPM Part 1 Exam

75 Stems

Exam Format

FPM Exam Regulations

150 min

Time Limit

FPM Exam Regulations

£620

Exam Fee

FPM 2026 Fee Structure

~65%

Angoff Pass Mark

FPM Standard Setting

4 Domains

Syllabus Scope

FPM CPM Blueprint

Online

Delivery Mode

FPM Remote Invigilation

The FPM Certificate in Pharmaceutical Medicine (CPM) is a 150-minute, 75-stem remote-proctored examination (£620) designed for medical practitioners in pharmaceutical medicine, assessing preclinical science, clinical trials, regulatory/PV, and health economics/ABPI compliance with an Angoff pass mark (~65%).

Sample CPM / DPM Part 1 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CPM / DPM Part 1 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which parameter best quantifies the intrinsic capability of a drug to activate a specific receptor and elicit a maximal functional cellular response once bound?

A.Efficacy (Emax)

B.Potency (EC50)

C.Affinity (Kd)

D.Therapeutic Index

Explanation: Efficacy (Emax) reflects the maximal functional response obtainable from a drug when all available receptors are occupied. Potency refers to the concentration (EC50) required to produce 50% of the maximum effect, whereas efficacy describes the magnitude of the maximal response itself.

2An oral investigational drug undergoes extensive hepatic first-pass metabolism. What effect does this primarily have on the drug's pharmacokinetic profile?

A.It significantly reduces systemic oral bioavailability (F).

B.It prolongs the terminal elimination half-life (t1/2).

C.It increases the steady-state volume of distribution (Vd).

D.It decreases hepatic clearance (CLhep).

Explanation: Hepatic first-pass metabolism refers to the biotransformation of a drug in the liver before it enters the systemic circulation following gastrointestinal absorption. Extensive presystemic clearance directly decreases the fraction of unchanged drug entering systemic circulation, thereby lowering oral bioavailability (F).

3A novel small molecule exhibits very high plasma protein binding (99.5%). If displacement occurs due to a co-administered drug, what is the immediate physiological effect on free drug concentration and clearance?

A.Transient increase in free drug concentration, leading to increased clearance or tissue distribution until a new steady state is reached.

B.Permanent doubling of total steady-state drug concentration and reduced hepatic metabolism.

C.Immediate reduction in volume of distribution due to decreased cellular uptake.

D.Proportional decrease in renal excretion rate regardless of glomerular filtration.

Explanation: Displacing a highly bound drug temporarily elevates the unbound (free) plasma fraction (fu). This transiently increases free drug available for tissue distribution and clearance mechanisms, which rapidly re-establishes free drug concentration near baseline levels at steady state for low-clearance drugs.

4What is the primary scientific purpose of performing an Ames bacterial reverse mutation assay during non-clinical toxicology screening?

A.To detect point mutations and frameshift mutations induced by a test substance in Salmonella typhimurium strains.

B.To evaluate chromosomal structural aberrations in mammalian Chinese Hamster Ovary (CHO) cells.

C.To measure secondary QT interval prolongation in human embryonic kidney cells.

D.To quantify DNA double-strand breaks in vivo in Sprague-Dawley rodent bone marrow.

Explanation: The Ames assay (ICH S2 guideline) uses histidine-dependent strains of Salmonella typhimurium to screen for gene mutations (point mutations and frameshifts) induced by a compound or its metabolically activated derivatives.

5Co-administration of a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor with an investigational drug that is a sensitive CYP3A4 substrate is expected to cause which pharmacokinetic change?

A.Increased Area Under the Curve (AUC) and prolonged elimination half-life of the investigational drug.

B.Decreased Cmax and increased clearance of the investigational drug.

C.Reduced oral absorption due to P-glycoprotein activation in the enterocytes.

D.Accelerated hepatic biotransformation leading to subtherapeutic blood levels.

Explanation: CYP3A4 inhibition blocks the metabolic breakdown of CYP3A4 substrates, reducing intrinsic hepatic clearance. This leads to higher systemic exposure (elevated AUC, Cmax) and a longer elimination half-life, raising toxicity risks.

6Under ICH S7B guidelines, why is in vitro assay of the human ether-à-go-go-related gene (hERG) channel potassium current essential during safety pharmacology?

A.Inhibition of hERG potassium channels delays cardiac ventricular repolarization, increasing risk of QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes.

B.Blockade of hERG sodium channels disrupts sinoatrial node depolarization, causing severe sinus bradycardia.

C.Activation of hERG calcium channels leads to coronary vasoconstriction and malignant hypertension.

D.hERG channel binding directly predicts systemic organ carcinogenicity in long-term rodent studies.

Explanation: The hERG gene encodes the pore-forming subunit of the rapid delayed rectifier potassium channel (IKr) in cardiac myocytes. Drug-induced hERG inhibition delays ventricular repolarization, manifesting as QT prolongation on ECG and predisposing to fatal Torsades de Pointes arrhythmias.

7When calculating the Human Equivalent Dose (HED) from a non-rodent No Observed Adverse Effect Level (NOAEL) for Phase I first-in-human trials, which scaling factor approach is recommended by regulatory authorities?

A.Normalization based on Body Surface Area (BSA) using body weight raised to the power of 0.67 or 0.75 (allometric scaling).

B.Direct linear body weight ratio conversion (mg/kg) without interspecies scaling factors.

C.Fixed 100-fold dose reduction from the rodent Median Lethal Dose (LD50).

D.Calculation based solely on plasma clearance rates measured in vitro in liver microsomes.

Explanation: FDA and EMA guidelines mandate converting animal NOAEL to HED using Body Surface Area (BSA) allometric scaling factors (mg/m2, exponent ~0.67-0.75). A safety factor (typically at least 10-fold) is then applied to derive the Maximum Recommended Starting Dose (MRSD).

8Which statement accurately describes a drug with a narrow therapeutic index (NTI)?

A.Small differences in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures or adverse drug reactions.

B.The toxic dose (TD50) is more than 100 times greater than the effective dose (ED50).

C.Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) is unnecessary due to predictable linear pharmacokinetics.

D.Wide plasma concentration variations have minimal impact on clinical efficacy or safety toxicity.

Explanation: Narrow therapeutic index drugs (e.g., warfarin, digoxin, lithium, gentamycin) have a narrow margin between minimum effective concentration and toxic threshold. Minor dosage adjustments or pharmacokinetic changes can trigger severe toxicity or therapeutic failure.

9Assuming first-order elimination kinetics, how many half-lives (t1/2) of repeated regular dosing are required for a drug to reach approximately 97% of steady-state plasma concentration?

A.5 half-lives

B.1 half-life

C.2 half-lives

D.10 half-lives

Explanation: Under first-order kinetics, accumulation to steady state follows an exponential curve: 50% at 1 t1/2, 75% at 2 t1/2, 87.5% at 3 t1/2, 93.75% at 4 t1/2, and 96.875% (~97%) at 5 half-lives.

10In non-clinical drug development, what is a primary limitation of relying solely on rodent species for predicting human metabolic profiles?

A.Differences in Cytochrome P450 enzyme isoforms and expressions can produce unique human metabolites not observed in rodents.

B.Rodents possess identical hepatic biliary excretion transporters to humans, causing over-prediction of renal clearance.

C.Rodent intestinal mucosa completely lacks P-glycoprotein efflux channels.

D.Rodents do not exhibit phase I oxidative biotransformation reactions.

Explanation: Species-specific expression of CYP enzymes and phase II conjugating enzymes often generates distinct metabolic pathways. Unique or disproportionate human metabolites (ICH M3(R2)) may form in humans that are absent or minor in rodents, necessitating early comparative in vitro hepatocyte testing.

About the CPM / DPM Part 1 Exam

The Certificate in Pharmaceutical Medicine (CPM), which also constitutes Part 1 of the Diploma in Pharmaceutical Medicine (DPM), is the leading postgraduate qualification awarded by the Faculty of Pharmaceutical Medicine of the Royal Colleges of Physicians. It certifies comprehensive knowledge across drug discovery, clinical development methodology, GCP, regulatory licensing, pharmacovigilance, health technology assessment, and medical affairs compliance.

Assessment

75 question stems (20% Preclinical, 30% Clinical Trials, 30% Regulatory & PV, 20% Healthcare & Ethics).

Time Limit

150 minutes

Passing Score

Angoff standard setting (~65%)

Exam Fee

£620 (Faculty of Pharmaceutical Medicine (FPM) of the Royal Colleges of Physicians)

CPM / DPM Part 1 Exam Content Outline

20%

Discovery, Design, and Preclinical Drug Development

Pharmacodynamics, toxicology, pharmacokinetics, ADME, safety pharmacology, and animal translation.

30%

Clinical Development and Clinical Trials Methodology

Phase I-IV trial design, Good Clinical Practice (GCP), ICH guidelines, biostatistics, protocol development, and ethics committees.

30%

Regulatory Affairs, Pharmacovigilance, and Drug Safety

MHRA, EMA, FDA regulatory frameworks, Marketing Authorisation Applications (MAA), ICSR reporting, Risk Management Plans (RMP), and signal detection.

20%

Healthcare Marketplace, Health Economics, and Ethics

NICE, Health Technology Assessment (HTA), ICER/QALY, medical affairs, compliance, ABPI Code of Practice, and pricing/reimbursement.

How to Pass the CPM / DPM Part 1 Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Angoff standard setting (~65%)
Assessment: 75 question stems (20% Preclinical, 30% Clinical Trials, 30% Regulatory & PV, 20% Healthcare & Ethics).
Time limit: 150 minutes
Exam fee: £620

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CPM / DPM Part 1 Study Tips from Top Performers

1Thoroughly review ICH guidelines, particularly ICH E6 (GCP), ICH E8 (General Considerations for Clinical Trials), and ICH E9 (Statistical Principles).

2Understand UK and European regulatory pathways, including MHRA procedures, EMA Centralised/Decentralised procedures, and eCTD structure.

3Memorize pharmacovigilance definitions and reporting timelines (e.g., 7-day SUSAR for fatal/life-threatening events, 15-day for other SUSARs).

4Study the ABPI Code of Practice rules regarding promotional material certification, healthcare professional interactions, and non-interventional studies.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the FPM Certificate in Pharmaceutical Medicine (CPM) exam?

The CPM exam is a 150-minute online proctored test consisting of 75 question stems evaluating 375 discrete True/False or Single Best Answer item completions.

What is the passing score for the CPM exam?

The pass mark is determined using the Angoff standard-setting method, typically equating to approximately 65% correct responses.

Who is eligible to take the CPM exam?

The exam is designed for registered physicians working in or intending to enter pharmaceutical medicine, clinical research, or regulatory affairs.

How much does the CPM exam cost?

The examination entry fee is £620.