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100+ Free LDC Civil Procedure Practice Questions
Uganda LDC Bar Course - Civil Procedure practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.
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2026 Statistics
Key Facts: LDC Civil Procedure Exam
50%
LDC Passing Mark
LDC Rules
45 days
Government Notice
Cap 72
UGX 100M
Grade I Limit (2026)
Judiciary
UGX 200M
Chief Magistrate Limit (2026)
Judiciary
6 months
Max Imprisonment
CPA Cap 71
21 days
Summons Service
Order 5
Civil Procedure is a Category A subject on the Uganda LDC Bar Course, requiring an aggregate score of 50% to pass. The assessment is cumulative, combining continuous assessments (IAs), oral exams, and a final written exam. Pecuniary jurisdictions were updated in 2026, setting Grade I Magistrates up to UGX 100M and Chief Magistrates up to UGX 200M. This free bank provides 100 practice questions mapped to the official LDC Civil Litigation syllabus.
Sample LDC Civil Procedure Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your LDC Civil Procedure exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1An advocate in Kampala receives instructions from a client who alleges that a commercial bank wrongfully placed a charge on their property. During the initial interview, the advocate listens to the client's narrative but fails to ask for the title deed or the mortgage deed. Which of the following best describes the professional mistake made by the advocate during this pre-action stage?
A.The advocate failed to obtain written instructions before listening to the client's story.
B.The advocate failed to carry out a factual investigation by not requesting and reviewing the primary documents that form the basis of the dispute.
C.The advocate failed to advise the client to immediately file a criminal complaint against the bank manager.
D.The advocate failed to draft and file the plaint within 24 hours of the client's arrival.
Explanation: During the initial client interview, it is a key best practice for the advocate to obtain all relevant documents to verify the client's claims. Relying solely on the client's oral account without reviewing documents like the title deed or mortgage deed constitutes a failure of preliminary factual investigation and due diligence.
2In the case of Sir John Bageire v. Ausi Matovu, the Ugandan court emphasized the critical importance of an advocate's authority to represent a client in civil litigation. If an advocate files a plaint in the High Court of Uganda on behalf of a client without a signed retainer or written instructions, what is the procedural consequence?
A.The suit may be declared incompetent and struck out, and the advocate may be held personally liable for the costs of the suit.
B.The court will stay proceedings and allow the advocate 14 days to file a retrospective retainer.
C.The suit remains fully competent, but the advocate cannot charge any fees for representing the client.
D.The defendant is deemed to have admitted all claims in the plaint due to the advocate's action.
Explanation: Under Ugandan law, an advocate must have written instructions (a retainer) to file a suit. Under Sir John Bageire v. Ausi Matovu, filing a suit without authority is a serious procedural defect. The court can strike out the suit as incompetent and order the advocate to pay the costs of the suit personally.
3During a consultation, a client tells you they want to sue their partner for breach of a business agreement. The client mentions in confidence that they have been evading taxes by using a parallel accounting book, which they show to you. The partner later threatens to sue your client. Can you disclose the parallel accounting book to the authorities or in court?
A.Yes, because the communication was made in furtherance of an illegal purpose, which is an exception to advocate-client privilege under Section 126 of the Evidence Act.
B.No, because all communications between an advocate and client are absolute and can never be disclosed under any circumstances.
C.Yes, but only if the adverse party pays you a fee equal to your client's outstanding bill.
D.No, because the client's tax evasion is a private civil matter that does not concern the public or the courts.
Explanation: Under Section 126 of the Evidence Act (Cap 6), advocate-client privilege does not protect communications made in furtherance of any illegal purpose, nor does it protect facts showing that a crime or fraud has been committed since the commencement of the advocate's employment. Tax evasion is illegal, and disclosing the fraud falls under the statutory exceptions to privilege.
4An advocate represents a landlord in an eviction suit. During the suit, the landlord's former business partner approaches the advocate to file a suit against the landlord regarding a partnership dispute. The partner offers to share confidential financial records of the landlord that the advocate had previously reviewed. What is the advocate's ethical duty under the Advocates (Professional Conduct) Regulations, SI 267-2?
A.The advocate can represent the partner as long as they charge a separate fee and file a separate suit.
B.The advocate must decline the partner's instructions because representing them against a current or former client creates a conflict of interest, especially where confidential information is involved.
C.The advocate can represent the partner but must disclose the landlord's confidences to the trial judge in chambers.
D.The advocate must represent both parties and attempt to settle the matter out of court without informing either client of the dual representation.
Explanation: Under Regulation 9 of the Advocates (Professional Conduct) Regulations, an advocate must not represent a party if it creates a conflict of interest with an existing or former client, nor use confidential information obtained from a client to their disadvantage.
5An advocate files a plaint in the High Court of Uganda on January 15th, 2026. The defendant raises a preliminary objection that the plaint is invalid because the advocate's practicing certificate had expired on December 31st, 2025, and they had not yet renewed it. Citing the Supreme Court decision in Prof. Syed Huq v. Islamic University in Uganda, how should the court rule on this objection?
A.The court should dismiss the objection because the advocate has until March 1st to renew their certificate without affecting validity.
B.The court must sustain the objection, strike out the plaint as invalid and incompetent, and refuse to allow retrospective validation.
C.The court will stay the suit and order the advocate to pay a double fee to the Uganda Revenue Authority to validate the plaint.
D.The court will allow the suit to proceed but forbid the advocate from appearing in court, letting the client argue the case.
Explanation: In the landmark case of Prof. Syed Huq v. Islamic University in Uganda (1997), the Supreme Court of Uganda held that pleadings drawn and signed by an advocate who does not hold a valid practicing certificate are illegal, invalid, and cannot be validated retrospectively. The suit must be struck out as incompetent.
6An advocate successfully represents a client in a commercial suit and secures a judgment. The client refuses to pay the agreed instruction fees. The advocate wants to sue the client immediately to recover the fees. According to Section 59 of the Advocates Act (Cap 267), what must the advocate do before filing the suit?
A.The advocate can sue immediately by filing a plaint in the Chief Magistrates Court.
B.The advocate must deliver a signed bill of costs to the client and wait for a statutory period of one month (30 days) to expire before commencing the suit.
C.The advocate must obtain a written clearance certificate from the Registrar of the High Court.
D.The advocate must refer the client to the Disciplinary Committee of the Law Council for arbitration.
Explanation: Under Section 59(1) of the Advocates Act (Cap 267), no advocate may sue for the recovery of any fees from a client until the expiry of one month after they have delivered to the client a bill of those fees, charges, and disbursements signed by the advocate.
7A client approaches your law firm on January 10th, 2026, claiming that a supplier failed to deliver goods under a contract on January 15th, 2020. The client wants to sue for breach of contract. Under Section 3(1)(a) of the Limitation Act (Cap 80) of Uganda, what is the limitation period, and is this suit time-barred?
A.The limitation period is three years, and the suit is time-barred.
B.The limitation period is six years, and the suit is not time-barred because the suit can still be filed on or before January 15th, 2026.
C.The limitation period is twelve years, and the suit is not time-barred.
D.The limitation period is two years, and the suit is time-barred.
Explanation: Under Section 3(1)(a) of the Limitation Act (Cap 80), actions founded on contract must be brought within six years from the date the cause of action accrued (the date of breach). The breach occurred on January 15th, 2020, so the client has until January 15th, 2026, to file the suit.
8A pedestrian is knocked down by a negligent driver in Kampala, sustaining severe spinal injuries. The accident occurred on May 10th, 2022. The pedestrian wishes to file a personal injury claim against the driver on June 15th, 2025. Under the Limitation Act (Cap 80) of Uganda, how should you advise the client?
A.The suit is competent because the general limitation period for torts is six years under Section 3(1).
B.The suit is time-barred because the limitation period for negligence actions involving personal injuries is three years under the proviso to Section 3(1).
C.The suit is competent because there is no limitation period for personal injury claims in Uganda.
D.The suit is time-barred because personal injury claims must be filed within twelve months from the date of the accident.
Explanation: Under the proviso to Section 3(1) of the Limitation Act (Cap 80), actions for damages for negligence, nuisance, or breach of duty where the damages consist of or include personal injuries must be brought within three years from the date the cause of action arose. Since the accident happened on May 10th, 2022, the limitation expired on May 10th, 2025.
9A registered land owner discovers that a trespasser took physical possession of their land in Mukono and built a house on it in January 2012. The owner wants to sue the trespasser for recovery of land and eviction in June 2025. Under Section 5 of the Limitation Act (Cap 80), what is the limitation period, and is the suit competent?
A.The limitation period is six years, and the suit is time-barred.
B.The limitation period is twelve years, and the suit is time-barred because the action accrued in 2012 and expired in January 2024.
C.The limitation period is twelve years, and the suit is competent because land claims never expire under the Registration of Titles Act.
D.The limitation period is thirty years, and the suit is competent.
Explanation: Under Section 5 of the Limitation Act (Cap 80), actions for the recovery of land must be brought within twelve years from the date the cause of action accrued (the date the adverse possession began). Since the trespasser took possession in January 2012, the twelve-year period expired in January 2024, making a June 2025 suit time-barred.
10In Uganda Telecom Ltd v. ZTE Corporation, the court discussed the postponement of limitation periods. Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act (Cap 80), when a client's cause of action for breach of contract is concealed by the fraud of the defendant, how does the limitation period run?
A.The limitation period continues to run normally, and the plaintiff's only remedy is a separate suit for fraud.
B.The limitation period does not begin to run until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud, or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.
C.The limitation period is extended by a standard three years from the date of the breach.
D.The plaintiff must file an application to the High Court within 30 days of the breach to halt the limitation clock.
Explanation: Section 25 of the Limitation Act (Cap 80) provides that where an action is based on the fraud of the defendant, or the right of action is concealed by fraud, the limitation period does not begin to run until the plaintiff has discovered the fraud, or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.
About the LDC Civil Procedure Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for Uganda LDC Bar Course - Civil Procedure is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.