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100+ Free RPA Practice Questions

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Under ERISA, if a married participant in a defined benefit plan dies before retirement, the surviving spouse is entitled to which benefit?

A
B
C
D
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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: RPA Exam

3

Required Exams

IFEBP CEBS program page

100

Questions Per Exam

IFEBP CEBS program page

2 hours

Time Per Exam

IFEBP CEBS program page

~$885

Total Exam Fees

IFEBP CEBS pricing

Wharton

Academic Affiliation

IFEBP/Wharton CEBS program

IFEBP structures RPA as 3 exams of 100 questions each at Prometric, 2 hours per exam, ~$295 per exam (~$885 total). RPA counts toward the full CEBS designation and is affiliated with the Wharton School of the University of Pennsylvania.

Sample RPA Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your RPA exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which type of retirement plan allows employees to direct a portion of their pre-tax salary into an individual account, with the employee bearing the investment risk?
A.Defined benefit plan
B.401(k) defined contribution plan
C.Cash balance plan
D.Target benefit plan
Explanation: A 401(k) plan is a defined contribution plan where employees make pre-tax (or Roth after-tax) salary deferrals into individual accounts. The employee directs investments and bears the investment risk, with the retirement benefit depending on account balance at retirement. This contrasts with defined benefit plans where the employer bears investment risk.
2Under SECURE 2.0, new 401(k) and 403(b) plans established after December 29, 2022, must implement automatic enrollment. What is the minimum initial default deferral rate?
A.1%
B.3%
C.6%
D.10%
Explanation: SECURE 2.0 mandates that new 401(k) and 403(b) plans established after December 29, 2022, automatically enroll eligible employees at a minimum of 3% (maximum 10%) of compensation. The rate must auto-escalate by at least 1% annually until reaching at least 10% but no more than 15%. Small employers (10 or fewer employees), new businesses under 3 years, and governmental/church plans are exempt.
3Which retirement plan is specifically available to employees of public educational institutions and Section 501(c)(3) tax-exempt organizations?
A.401(k) plan
B.403(b) plan
C.457(b) plan
D.SIMPLE IRA
Explanation: Section 403(b) plans (also called tax-sheltered annuities or TSAs) are available exclusively to employees of public educational institutions, 501(c)(3) tax-exempt organizations, and certain religious organizations. They function similarly to 401(k) plans with salary deferrals and employer contributions but have some unique provisions like the 15-year service catch-up.
4For 2026, what is the IRC Section 402(g) elective deferral limit for employees under age 50 contributing to a 401(k) plan?
A.$20,500
B.$22,500
C.$23,500
D.$25,000
Explanation: The 2026 Section 402(g) elective deferral limit for 401(k), 403(b), and most 457(b) plans is $23,500 for employees under age 50. Employees age 50+ may make additional catch-up contributions. SECURE 2.0 also introduced a higher catch-up limit for ages 60-63. This limit is indexed for inflation annually.
5Which type of employer contribution to a 401(k) plan is discretionary and typically depends on company profitability?
A.Safe harbor match
B.Profit-sharing contribution
C.Employee elective deferral
D.Mandatory employer non-elective contribution
Explanation: Profit-sharing contributions are discretionary employer contributions that can vary year to year based on company profitability, cash flow, or board decisions. Unlike safe harbor contributions, which are mandatory and follow specific formulas, profit-sharing contributions give employers maximum flexibility in the amount and allocation method.
6An employer adopts the basic safe harbor match formula for its 401(k) plan. What is the maximum employer match percentage if an employee defers 5% or more of compensation?
A.3%
B.4%
C.5%
D.6%
Explanation: The basic safe harbor match provides 100% match on the first 3% of compensation deferred plus 50% on the next 2% deferred. For an employee deferring 5% or more, the total employer match is 3% + 1% = 4% of compensation. The enhanced safe harbor match provides 100% on the first 4%, also totaling 4%.
7Section 457(b) deferred compensation plans available to governmental employers differ from 401(k) plans in which significant way?
A.457(b) plans do not allow employee contributions
B.457(b) plans have no 10% early withdrawal penalty for distributions before age 59-1/2
C.457(b) plans have no annual contribution limits
D.457(b) plans are only available to for-profit employers
Explanation: A major advantage of governmental 457(b) plans is that distributions are not subject to the 10% early withdrawal penalty that applies to 401(k) and 403(b) plans before age 59-1/2. This makes 457(b) plans particularly valuable for government employees who retire before 59-1/2. Distributions are still subject to ordinary income tax.
8Which automatic enrollment feature increases an employee's deferral percentage by a set amount each year until reaching a cap?
A.Automatic rollover
B.Automatic escalation (auto-increase)
C.Automatic rebalancing
D.Automatic distribution
Explanation: Automatic escalation (auto-increase) systematically increases employee deferral rates annually, typically by 1% per year, until reaching a predetermined cap (often 10-15%). SECURE 2.0 mandates auto-escalation for new plans. Research shows auto-escalation significantly increases average deferral rates and improves retirement readiness.
9For 2026, what is the IRC Section 415(c) total annual addition limit for defined contribution plans (employee + employer contributions)?
A.$46,000
B.$57,000
C.$66,000
D.$70,000
Explanation: The 2026 Section 415(c) total annual addition limit for defined contribution plans is $70,000. This includes employee elective deferrals, employer matching contributions, employer profit-sharing contributions, and forfeitures. Catch-up contributions for employees 50+ are not counted toward the 415(c) limit.
10Which plan design feature allows 401(k) participants to make after-tax contributions and then convert them to a Roth account within the plan, known as the "mega backdoor Roth"?
A.Safe harbor matching
B.In-plan Roth conversion of after-tax contributions
C.Traditional IRA rollover
D.Hardship withdrawal
Explanation: The mega backdoor Roth strategy involves making after-tax (non-Roth) contributions to a 401(k) plan beyond the 402(g) deferral limit, then converting those after-tax contributions to a Roth account (in-plan Roth conversion). This allows participants to effectively contribute more to Roth accounts than the standard deferral limit permits.

About the RPA Exam

The RPA (Retirement Plans Associate) designation from the International Foundation of Employee Benefit Plans (IFEBP) is a sub-credential of the CEBS program focusing on retirement plan design, administration, regulation, and investment management. RPA requires passing three course exams (RPA 1, RPA 2, and GBA/RPA 3), each with 100 multiple-choice questions administered at Prometric test centers over 2 hours.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

2 hours per exam

Passing Score

Scaled passing score

Exam Fee

~$295 per exam (~$885 total for 3 exams) (IFEBP / Prometric)

RPA Exam Content Outline

25%

Defined Contribution Plans

401(k), 403(b), 457, profit sharing, automatic enrollment, safe harbor, and SECURE 2.0 provisions

20%

Defined Benefit Plans

Pension design, funding, PBGC, actuarial basics, cash balance plans, and hybrid plans

25%

Retirement Plan Regulation

ERISA, IRC, DOL compliance, fiduciary duties, prohibited transactions, and Form 5500

15%

Plan Administration

Recordkeeping, participant communications, distributions, loans, and hardship withdrawals

15%

Investment Management

QDIA, target-date funds, investment policy statements, fee disclosure (408(b)(2)), and MPT basics

How to Pass the RPA Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled passing score
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: 2 hours per exam
  • Exam fee: ~$295 per exam (~$885 total for 3 exams)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

RPA Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master ERISA fiduciary duties and prohibited transaction rules — they are foundational to all RPA exams
2Learn the 2026 IRS contribution limits, compensation caps, and penalty thresholds
3Understand the differences between defined benefit and defined contribution plans at a structural level
4Study SECURE 2.0 provisions thoroughly as they represent the most significant recent regulatory changes
5Practice vesting calculation scenarios with both cliff and graded schedules
6Use timed 100-question practice sets to simulate the 2-hour Prometric exam format

Frequently Asked Questions

How many exams are required for the RPA designation?

RPA requires passing 3 course exams: RPA 1, RPA 2, and a shared GBA/RPA 3 exam. Each exam has 100 multiple-choice questions with a 2-hour time limit.

How much does the RPA program cost?

Each RPA exam costs approximately $295, totaling about $885 for all three exams. Course materials and study resources are additional costs.

Does RPA count toward CEBS?

Yes, RPA is one of two sub-credentials of the CEBS (Certified Employee Benefit Specialist) program. Earning both RPA and GBA completes the CEBS designation.

What topics are covered on the RPA exams?

RPA covers defined contribution plans (401(k), 403(b)), defined benefit pensions, ERISA/IRC compliance, fiduciary duties, plan administration, and investment management.

How does RPA differ from GBA?

RPA focuses on retirement plan design, funding, and investment management, while GBA focuses on group health and welfare benefits. Together they form the full CEBS credential.