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Sample RAC (Devices) Practice Questions
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1Under the US FDA risk-based framework, into how many regulatory classes are medical devices categorized?
A.Three (Class I, II, and III)
B.Two (Class A and Class B)
C.Four (Class I, IIa, IIb, and III)
D.Five (Class 1 through 5)
Explanation: The FDA classifies devices into three classes (I, II, III) based on the level of control necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness, with risk increasing from Class I to Class III. Class III is the highest-risk tier and generally requires premarket approval.
2What does a traditional 510(k) premarket notification require a manufacturer to demonstrate?
A.That the device is safe and effective through pivotal clinical trials
B.That the device is substantially equivalent to a legally marketed predicate device
C.That the device meets the Essential Principles of the EU MDR
D.That the device has no predicate and is therefore novel
Explanation: A 510(k) demonstrates substantial equivalence (SE) to a legally marketed predicate device in terms of intended use and technological characteristics. It is a notification, not an approval, and does not generally require independent proof of safety and effectiveness through pivotal trials.
3Which FDA premarket pathway is generally required for high-risk Class III devices such as implantable pacemakers?
A.510(k) premarket notification
B.De Novo classification request
C.Premarket Approval (PMA)
D.Investigational Device Exemption (IDE)
Explanation: Premarket Approval (PMA) is the most stringent device marketing application and is generally required for Class III devices that support or sustain life. A PMA requires valid scientific evidence, typically including clinical data, to establish reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
4The De Novo classification pathway is most appropriate for which type of device?
A.A high-risk Class III device requiring clinical trials
B.A device identical to an existing legally marketed predicate
C.A device being studied under an investigational protocol
D.A novel low-to-moderate risk device with no valid predicate
Explanation: The De Novo pathway provides a route to market for novel devices of low to moderate risk for which there is no legally marketed predicate, allowing classification into Class I or II. A granted De Novo can then serve as a predicate for future 510(k) submissions.
5What is the primary purpose of an Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) under 21 CFR 812?
A.To allow an investigational device to be used in a clinical study to collect safety and effectiveness data
B.To grant final marketing clearance for a Class II device
C.To exempt a device permanently from premarket review
D.To register the device labeler in GUDID
Explanation: An IDE allows an investigational device to be used in a clinical study in order to collect the safety and effectiveness data needed to support a marketing application. It is governed by 21 CFR Part 812 and is not itself a marketing authorization.
6As of February 2, 2026, the FDA's Quality Management System Regulation (QMSR) incorporates by reference which international standard?
A.ISO 9001:2015
B.ISO 13485:2016
C.ISO 14971:2019
D.ISO/IEC 27001:2022
Explanation: Effective February 2, 2026, the revised 21 CFR Part 820 (the QMSR) incorporates ISO 13485:2016 by reference, harmonizing FDA quality system requirements with the international standard for medical device quality management systems. FDA-specific provisions remain in Part 820 where ISO 13485 was not fully sufficient.
7Within what timeframe must a device manufacturer submit a Medical Device Report (MDR) to FDA after becoming aware that a device may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury?
A.No later than 5 working days
B.No later than 90 calendar days
C.No later than 30 calendar days
D.No later than 15 calendar days
Explanation: Under 21 CFR Part 803, manufacturers must submit an MDR to FDA no later than 30 calendar days after becoming aware of information reasonably suggesting that a device may have caused or contributed to a death or serious injury, or has malfunctioned in a way likely to do so if it recurred.
8A Unique Device Identifier (UDI) consists of which two components?
A.A lot number and a serial number
B.A predicate code and a product code
C.A GMDN code and a CE certificate number
D.A device identifier (DI) and a production identifier (PI)
Explanation: A UDI consists of a device identifier (DI), a mandatory fixed portion identifying the labeler and device version/model, and a production identifier (PI), a conditional variable portion that may include lot/batch, serial number, expiration date, or manufacture date.
9How does FDA classify a recall in which there is a reasonable probability that use of the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death?
A.Class I recall
B.Class III recall
C.Class II recall
D.Market withdrawal
Explanation: A Class I recall is the most serious category and involves a reasonable probability that use of or exposure to the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death. Class II involves temporary or medically reversible consequences, and Class III is unlikely to cause adverse health consequences.
10Under 21 CFR Part 806, a 'correction' of a medical device is best described as which of the following?
A.The physical removal of a device from its point of use to another location
B.The repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, or inspection of a device without its physical removal
C.The permanent destruction of a device under FDA supervision
D.The transfer of a device's marketing authorization to another firm
Explanation: Under 21 CFR 806, a correction is the repair, modification, adjustment, relabeling, destruction, or inspection (including patient monitoring) of a device without its physical removal to another location. A removal, by contrast, involves the physical relocation of the device.
About the RAC (Devices) Practice Questions
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