100+ Free R.EP.T. Practice Questions

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Question 1

Score: 0/0

Before performing an evoked potential study, which of the following is the MOST important initial step?

Calibrate the equipment

Review the patient's history and clinical indication

Apply electrodes to the patient

Set the filter bandwidth

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: R.EP.T. Exam

3.5 hrs

Exam Time

2026 ABRET R.EP.T. Handbook

$400

Exam Fee

ABRET fee schedule (2026)

65%

Performing Study Domain

ABRET content outline (heaviest)

58%

Pass Rate (2024)

ABRET Examination Statistics

5 yrs

Credential Validity

ABRET recertification policy

Daily

Exam Availability

Kryterion Mon-Sat (2026)

The ABRET R.EP.T. exam is a computer-based multiple-choice exam with a 3.5-hour time limit (2 sections) and $400 fee. Content weighting: Performing the Study (65%), Pre-Study Preparation (20%), Post-Study Procedures (10%), Ethics (5%). New for 2026: exam moved to Kryterion platform with remote proctoring option. Candidates need CAAHEP NDT program + 20 EP cases (Pathway I) or Associate degree/R.EEG.T. + 30 EP cases + 2 years experience (Pathway II). Credential valid 5 years.

Sample R.EP.T. Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your R.EP.T. exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Before performing an evoked potential study, which of the following is the MOST important initial step?

A.Calibrate the equipment

B.Review the patient's history and clinical indication

C.Apply electrodes to the patient

D.Set the filter bandwidth

Explanation: Reviewing the patient's history and clinical indication is the most important initial step before performing an EP study. Understanding the reason for the referral, current medications, neurological symptoms, and relevant diagnoses guides electrode placement, stimulation parameters, and interpretation. Equipment calibration and electrode application follow once the clinical context is established.

2Multiple sclerosis is classified as which type of neurological disorder?

A.Neurodegenerative disease

B.Demyelinating disease

C.Infectious disease

D.Vascular disease

Explanation: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system. It involves autoimmune-mediated destruction of the myelin sheath surrounding nerve fibers, which slows or blocks nerve conduction. This demyelination characteristically prolongs evoked potential latencies, making EP studies particularly useful in diagnosing and monitoring MS.

3Which cranial nerve is primarily assessed during brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP) testing?

A.Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

B.Cranial nerve VII (facial)

C.Cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear)

D.Cranial nerve X (vagus)

Explanation: BAEP testing primarily assesses cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) and the auditory pathway through the brainstem. Click stimuli are delivered to the ear, and the resulting neural responses are recorded as waves I through V, with wave I originating from the distal portion of CN VIII. BAEPs are essential for evaluating hearing loss, acoustic neuromas, and brainstem integrity.

4Which condition is MOST commonly associated with prolonged P100 latency on pattern-reversal VEP?

A.Acoustic neuroma

B.Optic neuritis

C.Carpal tunnel syndrome

D.Bell's palsy

Explanation: Optic neuritis is the condition most commonly associated with prolonged P100 latency on pattern-reversal VEP. Optic neuritis causes inflammation and demyelination of the optic nerve, slowing conduction and delaying the P100 peak beyond the normal ~100 ms. This finding is highly sensitive for detecting optic nerve involvement in multiple sclerosis, even in clinically silent cases.

5Which medication class is MOST likely to affect evoked potential latencies and amplitudes?

A.Antibiotics

B.Antihypertensives

C.Anesthetic agents

D.Antihistamines

Explanation: Anesthetic agents have the most significant effect on evoked potential recordings. Volatile anesthetics (e.g., isoflurane, sevoflurane) and some intravenous agents can dramatically reduce amplitudes and prolong latencies of cortical EPs, particularly SSEPs and VEPs. This is critically important during intraoperative neuromonitoring, where anesthetic management must be coordinated with the EP technologist.

6When performing evoked potential studies on a neonate compared to an adult, the technologist should expect:

A.Shorter absolute latencies and larger amplitudes

B.Longer absolute latencies due to immature myelination

C.Identical waveform morphology as adults

D.No recordable responses until age 2

Explanation: Neonates have longer absolute latencies compared to adults due to incomplete myelination of the nervous system. Myelination continues to develop after birth, and EP latencies progressively shorten with maturation. Age-specific normative data must be used when interpreting neonatal EP studies. BAEP interpeak latencies, for example, reach adult values by approximately 18 months of age.

7Standard infection control practice for EP electrode application includes:

A.Sterilizing electrodes in an autoclave before each use

B.Using disposable electrodes or properly disinfecting reusable electrodes between patients

C.Wearing sterile surgical gowns during all recordings

D.Applying electrodes only with sterile surgical gloves

Explanation: Standard infection control for EP studies involves using disposable electrodes whenever possible or properly cleaning and disinfecting reusable electrodes between patients according to manufacturer and institutional guidelines. Skin preparation with mild abrasion and electrode paste application require standard precautions including gloves, but sterile surgical technique is not necessary for routine surface electrode placement.

8The dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway carries which type of sensory information?

A.Pain and temperature

B.Proprioception and vibration

C.Crude touch and pressure

D.Visceral sensation

Explanation: The dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway carries proprioception, vibration, fine touch, and two-point discrimination. This is the pathway assessed by SSEPs, which stimulate peripheral nerves and record the ascending volley through the dorsal columns, medial lemniscus, thalamus, and somatosensory cortex. Understanding this anatomy is essential for interpreting SSEP generator sources.

9A patient is referred for EP testing following a motor vehicle accident with suspected cervical spinal cord injury. Which EP modality is MOST appropriate?

A.Visual evoked potentials (VEPs)

B.Brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEPs)

C.Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs)

D.Electroretinography (ERG)

Explanation: SSEPs are the most appropriate modality for evaluating suspected cervical spinal cord injury. By stimulating peripheral nerves (typically median and tibial) and recording at multiple levels including Erb's point, cervical spine, and cortex, SSEPs can localize the level and severity of spinal cord dysfunction. SSEPs directly assess the integrity of the dorsal column pathway through the spinal cord.

10Which structure generates wave I of the brainstem auditory evoked potential?

A.Cochlear nucleus

B.Distal portion of cranial nerve VIII

C.Superior olivary complex

D.Inferior colliculus

Explanation: Wave I of the BAEP is generated by the distal portion of cranial nerve VIII (the auditory nerve) near the cochlea. It represents the compound action potential of the auditory nerve as it exits the cochlea. Wave I is the most peripheral generator and is often used as a reference point for calculating interpeak latencies (I-III, III-V, and I-V).

About the R.EP.T. Exam

The R.EP.T. credential from ABRET certifies expertise in clinical evoked potential testing. The exam covers performing EP studies including SSEPs, BAEPs, and VEPs with electrode placement, stimulation techniques, and signal interpretation (65%), pre-study patient preparation and neuroanatomy (20%), post-study data processing (10%), and ethics and professional issues (5%). R.EP.T. technologists evaluate neural pathway integrity for diagnosing demyelinating diseases, tumors, and neurological injuries.

Questions

Multiple-choice (count not publicly disclosed) scored questions

Time Limit

3.5 hours (2 sections × 120 minutes)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced (board-determined minimum competency)

Exam Fee

$400 (ABRET)

R.EP.T. Exam Content Outline

65%

Performing the EP Study

Electrode placement (10-20/Queen's Square), SSEP/BAEP/VEP recording and stimulation, sensitivity/filter settings, signal averaging, artifact identification, troubleshooting, instrumentation

20%

Pre-Study/Patient Preparation

Patient history, neurologic disorders (demyelinating diseases, CNS infections, tumors), neuroanatomy, medication effects, age-specific considerations

10%

Post-Study Procedures

Electrode removal, data processing, digital instrumentation, HIPAA, documentation

Ethics and Professional Issues

ABRET Code of Ethics, patient safety, OSHA standards, National Patient Safety Goals

How to Pass the R.EP.T. Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced (board-determined minimum competency)
Exam length: Multiple-choice (count not publicly disclosed) questions
Time limit: 3.5 hours (2 sections × 120 minutes)
Exam fee: $400

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

R.EP.T. Study Tips from Top Performers

1Performing the Study is 65% — master all three EP modalities (SSEP, BAEP, VEP), their electrode montages, stimulation parameters, and normal waveform components

2Know SSEP generators: N9 (Erb's point/brachial plexus), N13 (dorsal horn), N20 (somatosensory cortex) for median nerve; P37 for tibial nerve cortical response

3Know BAEP waves I-V and their generators: I=distal CN VIII, II=proximal CN VIII, III=superior olivary complex, IV=lateral lemniscus, V=inferior colliculus

4Understand VEP pattern-reversal: P100 latency ~100ms, prolonged in optic neuritis/MS; check size and luminance affect results

5Master instrumentation: differential amplifier CMRR, Nyquist theorem (sample rate ≥ 2× max frequency), signal averaging to improve SNR

Frequently Asked Questions

How long is the R.EP.T. exam?

The 2026 R.EP.T. exam has a total testing time of 3.5 hours (reduced from 4 hours in 2025). It is divided into two sections of 120 minutes each. Once you complete the first section, you cannot return to it.

How much does the R.EP.T. exam cost?

The R.EP.T. exam fee is $400. Rescheduling costs $45 (paid to Kryterion). No refunds, extensions, or transfers.

What are the prerequisites for the R.EP.T. exam?

Pathway I: CAAHEP-accredited NDT program graduate with 20 documented EP cases. Pathway II: Associate degree or R.EEG.T. credential with 30 EP cases, 2 years clinical experience, and 30 hours EP education. Both require current CPR/BLS.

What changed for the R.EP.T. exam in 2026?

In 2026, the R.EP.T. exam moved to the Kryterion/Webassessor platform (previously Prometric), exam time was reduced to 3.5 hours, and remote proctoring is now available. The exam is offered daily Monday-Saturday.

What topics should I focus on for the R.EP.T. exam?

Performing the Study is 65% of the exam — master SSEP, BAEP, and VEP recording techniques, electrode placement, stimulation parameters, latency/amplitude measurements, and troubleshooting. Pre-Study preparation (20%) covers neuroanatomy and clinical correlations.

What is the R.EP.T. exam pass rate?

The 2024 overall pass rate was 58% (12 candidates). This is a challenging exam with a small candidate pool. Pass rates vary by eligibility pathway.