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Free Practice Questions for PMC Residency Entrance Exam

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Key Facts: PMC Residency Entrance Exam Exam

100

Questions per track paper

PMC council session 146

60%

Pass mark

PMC admission exam page (category 21/4275)

3 years

Validity of a pass

PMC admission exam page (category 21/4275)

200 JOD

Admission exam fee

PMC announcement 4514

2 tracks

Surgical and non-surgical

PMC admission exam page (category 21/4275)

35

Maximum age at first attempt

Executive Regulation 14/2012, Article 21

The PMC admission exam (امتحان القبول للبرنامج الوطني للتدريب التخصصي) controls entry to Palestinian national specialty training. Candidates sit one 100-question track paper: surgical (general surgery 60, obstetrics and gynecology 30, surgical subspecialties 10) or non-surgical (internal medicine 60, pediatrics 30, internal medicine subspecialties 10). The pass mark is 60%, a pass is valid for 3 years, and the fee is 200 JOD. OpenExamPrep's independent English-language practice MCQs cover both tracks, with half the bank for each track in the official 60/30/10 proportions.

Sample PMC Residency Entrance Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the PMC Residency Entrance Exam exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with 36 hours of worsening right upper quadrant pain and high fever (39.1°C). Heart rate is 122 bpm and blood pressure is 85/55 mmHg. Bilirubin is normal and the common bile duct is not dilated, but ultrasound shows a distended, thick-walled gallbladder with gas in its wall and lumen. After immediate fluid resuscitation and IV piperacillin-tazobactam, what is the definitive urgent management?
A.Emergent surgical cholecystectomy or percutaneous cholecystostomy tube drainage
B.Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy after 6 weeks of outpatient antibiotics
C.Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) alone without gallbladder intervention
D.Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) followed by observation
Explanation: Emphysematous cholecystitis is a life-threatening form of acute cholecystitis caused by gas-forming organisms (such as Clostridium perfringens, E. coli, or Klebsiella), occurring predominantly in elderly diabetic patients. It carries high rates of gangrene and perforation. The patient is in septic shock; following rapid hemodynamic resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics, urgent gallbladder decompression is mandatory via emergent cholecystectomy (if candidate can tolerate surgery) or emergency percutaneous cholecystostomy if critically unstable.
2A 21-year-old male is evaluated in the emergency department for right lower quadrant abdominal pain, anorexia, and low-grade fever. On physical examination, the examiner palpates deeply in the left lower quadrant, which elicits pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the clinical eponym for this physical exam finding?
A.Rovsing sign
B.Psoas sign
C.Obturator sign
D.Murphy sign
Explanation: Rovsing sign is defined as pain referred to the right lower quadrant (RLQ) when deep palpation is performed in the left lower quadrant (LLQ). It indicates peritoneal irritation in the right iliac fossa due to displacement of gas and pressure across the transverse colon toward the cecum.
3A 45-year-old woman with a prior history of open hysterectomy presents with obstipation, bilious vomiting, and colicky abdominal pain for 24 hours. Physical examination reveals abdominal distension, localized right mid-abdominal tenderness with involuntary guarding, temperature of 38.6°C, heart rate of 118 bpm, and leukocytosis of 17,500/mcL with bandemia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Emergent exploratory laparotomy
B.Water-soluble contrast small bowel follow-through challenge
C.Conservative management with nasogastric suction and IV fluids for 72 hours
D.Flexible sigmoidoscopy with rectal decompression tube
Explanation: While adhesive small bowel obstruction without complications is initially treated conservatively, the presence of fever, tachycardia, localized peritonitis (involuntary guarding), and leukocytosis strongly suggests closed-loop obstruction or intestinal strangulation/ischemia. Strangulated bowel requires emergent surgical exploration without delay to resect gangrenous segments and prevent perforation.
4A 45-year-old woman notices a 2 cm firm, mobile lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. She has no nipple discharge or skin changes. What is the standard initial approach to evaluating this palpable breast mass?
A.Triple assessment: clinical exam, imaging, and core needle biopsy
B.Reassurance and re-examination after her next menstrual cycle only
C.Immediate modified radical mastectomy without tissue diagnosis
D.Serum CA 15-3 measurement to decide whether imaging is needed
Explanation: A palpable breast lump is evaluated by triple assessment: clinical breast examination, age-appropriate imaging (diagnostic mammography plus targeted ultrasound in a woman of 45), and image-guided core needle biopsy of any solid or suspicious lesion. Concordance of all three components guides management, and no definitive surgery is planned without a tissue diagnosis.
5A 40-year-old woman is admitted with gallstone-related acute pancreatitis. She is hemodynamically stable, with no cholangitis or organ failure, and her pain is controlled. Which initial management plan is best supported by current evidence?
A.Moderate goal-directed lactated Ringer's and early oral feeding
B.Aggressive fixed high-volume fluids for 48 hours regardless of response
C.Prophylactic carbapenem antibiotics to prevent infected necrosis
D.Urgent ERCP within 24 hours despite no cholangitis or obstruction
Explanation: Mild acute pancreatitis is managed with goal-directed, moderate fluid resuscitation (lactated Ringer's is commonly preferred), analgesia, and early oral refeeding as tolerated rather than prolonged fasting. The WATERFALL trial found that aggressive fixed high-volume resuscitation increased fluid overload without improving outcomes. Prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended, urgent ERCP is reserved for concurrent cholangitis, and a same-admission cholecystectomy is advised after mild gallstone pancreatitis to prevent recurrence.
6A 60-year-old man with melena from a bleeding duodenal ulcer is hemodynamically stable after initial fluid resuscitation. He has no ischemic heart disease, and his hemoglobin is 8.2 g/dL. Based on the Villanueva randomized trial and current guidelines, what transfusion strategy is recommended?
A.Restrictive: transfuse when hemoglobin falls below about 7 g/dL
B.Liberal: transfuse to keep hemoglobin above 10 g/dL at all times
C.Transfuse two units now because any melena warrants blood
D.Avoid transfusion entirely until endoscopy has been completed
Explanation: In acute upper GI bleeding, a restrictive strategy (transfusion threshold about 7 g/dL, target roughly 7-9 g/dL) reduced further bleeding and improved survival compared with a liberal threshold of 9 g/dL in the Villanueva trial. A higher threshold (about 8 g/dL) is used for patients with cardiovascular disease, and massive ongoing bleeding is managed clinically rather than by the hemoglobin number alone.
7A 28-year-old woman has severe tearing pain during defecation with bright red blood on the toilet paper for 3 weeks. Gentle inspection shows a longitudinal tear in the posterior midline of the anal canal. What is the first-line treatment?
A.Fiber, sitz baths, and topical diltiazem or glyceryl trinitrate
B.Immediate lateral internal sphincterotomy under general anesthesia
C.Rubber band ligation of the posterior anal tear
D.Fistulotomy with seton placement
Explanation: An acute anal fissure is a tear in the anoderm, most often in the posterior midline, associated with internal sphincter spasm. First-line treatment is conservative: dietary fiber and fluids, stool softeners, warm sitz baths, and topical agents that relax the internal sphincter (diltiazem or glyceryl trinitrate). Lateral internal sphincterotomy or botulinum toxin is reserved for chronic fissures that fail medical therapy.
8A 58-year-old male presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Serum lipase is markedly elevated at 2,400 U/L. The surgical resident calculates Ranson's criteria to stratify disease severity. Which set of parameters constitutes Ranson's criteria evaluated at admission (0 hours)?
A.Age > 55 years, WBC > 16,000/mcL, Blood Glucose > 200 mg/dL, Serum AST > 250 IU/L, Serum LDH > 350 IU/L
B.Hematocrit drop > 10%, BUN increase > 5 mg/dL, Serum Calcium < 8 mg/dL, PaO2 < 60 mmHg, Base deficit > 4 mEq/L
C.Age > 65 years, Serum Amylase > 1,000 U/L, Serum Lipase > 2,000 U/L, Bilirubin > 3 mg/dL, Platelets < 100,000/mcL
D.Heart rate > 120 bpm, Respiratory rate > 24 bpm, Temperature > 38.5°C, Serum Creatinine > 2 mg/dL, Urine output < 30 mL/h
Explanation: Ranson's criteria at admission for non-gallstone acute pancreatitis are remembered by the mnemonic 'GA-LAW': Glucose > 200 mg/dL, Age > 55 years, LDH > 350 IU/L, AST > 250 IU/L, and WBC > 16,000/mcL. Meeting 3 or more criteria indicates severe acute pancreatitis.
9A 62-year-old male undergoes upper endoscopy for hematemesis. A 1.5 cm ulcer is identified on the posterior wall of the duodenal bulb with a visible non-bleeding protuberant vessel (Forrest IIa). What is the recommended endoscopic management to minimize the risk of recurrent hemorrhage?
A.Dual endoscopic therapy combining epinephrine injection with thermal coagulation or hemoclips
B.Endoscopic epinephrine injection alone with no mechanical or thermal application
C.Routine biopsy of the ulcer base followed by observation on oral antacids
D.Immediate transfer to the operating room for emergent gastrectomy without endoscopic therapy
Explanation: Peptic ulcers with high-risk stigmata of bleeding—active spurting (Forrest Ia), active oozing (Forrest Ib), and non-bleeding visible vessel (Forrest IIa)—require dual endoscopic hemostatic therapy. The combination of injection therapy (epinephrine for local vasoconstriction and tamponade) with a second modality (bipolar electrocoagulation, heater probe, or hemoclips) significantly reduces rebleeding rates compared to monotherapy.
10A 35-year-old man is brought in after a fall. He opens his eyes only to a painful stimulus, speaks inappropriate words, and withdraws his arm from a painful stimulus. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
A.9
B.8
C.10
D.7
Explanation: The GCS adds eye opening (maximum 4), verbal response (maximum 5), and motor response (maximum 6). Eye opening to pain scores 2, inappropriate words score 3, and withdrawal from pain scores 4, giving 2 + 3 + 4 = 9. A GCS of 8 or less is the usual threshold for considering definitive airway protection.

About the PMC Residency Entrance Exam Exam

The Palestinian Medical Council's admission exam for specialty training: one 100-question track paper (surgical or non-surgical) with a 60% pass mark.

Exam sponsor: Palestinian Medical Council (PMC / المجلس الطبي الفلسطيني). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

PMC runs one admission exam for its national specialty training programme twice a year alongside the Imtiyaz exam (in 2026: non-surgical track 30 March and 24 August; surgical track 31 March and 25 August), with one registration, a 200 JOD fee, a 60% pass mark, and a pass valid for 3 years. Under council session 146 (10/09/2025) each track paper has 100 questions: surgical track = general surgery 60, obstetrics and gynecology 30, surgical subspecialties 10; non-surgical track = internal medicine 60, pediatrics 30, internal medicine subspecialties 10. Council session 132 (24/04/2024) lets candidates who pass either track enter family medicine, emergency medicine, diagnostic radiology, or anesthesia. Government hospitals fill vacancies by exam rank and candidate preference, while other accredited centres may add interviews or oral exams.

Time Limit

not-published

Passing Score

60% (valid for 3 years)

Exam / Certification Fees

200 JOD (300 JOD when combined with the Imtiyaz exam)

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

60 of 100 questions (surgical track paper)

Surgical Track: General Surgery

Practice items cover the acute abdomen, biliary and pancreatic disease, GI bleeding, hernias, anorectal and breast conditions, thyroid nodules, trauma assessment, burns, and vascular surgery.

30 of 100 questions (surgical track paper)

Surgical Track: Obstetrics & Gynecology

Practice items cover ectopic and molar pregnancy, dating, antenatal screening and steroids, preterm and prelabor rupture of membranes, breech, cord prolapse, abruption, vasa previa, postpartum hemorrhage, fibroids, and vaginal infections.

10 of 100 questions (surgical track paper)

Surgical Track: Surgical Subspecialties

Practice items cover scaphoid and open fractures, ureteric stones, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and peritonsillar abscess.

60 of 100 questions (non-surgical track paper)

Non-Surgical Track: Internal Medicine

Practice items cover heart failure, arrhythmia, hypertensive emergency, pulmonary embolism, asthma and COPD, liver disease, diabetes and endocrine emergencies, electrolyte disorders, kidney disease, hematologic emergencies, infections, rheumatology, and poisoning.

30 of 100 questions (non-surgical track paper)

Non-Surgical Track: Pediatrics

Practice items cover newborn assessment and congenital hypothyroidism, infant growth and nutrition, hip dysplasia, otitis media, dehydration, anaphylaxis, foreign body aspiration, rheumatic fever, cyanotic heart disease, celiac disease, measles, septic shock, and kernicterus.

10 of 100 questions (non-surgical track paper)

Non-Surgical Track: Internal Medicine Subspecialties

PMC does not publish a topic list for this part; practice items cover Bell's palsy, status epilepticus, severe drug reactions of the skin, scabies, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

Preparing for the PMC Residency Entrance Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60% (valid for 3 years)
  • Assessment: PMC runs one admission exam for its national specialty training programme twice a year alongside the Imtiyaz exam (in 2026: non-surgical track 30 March and 24 August; surgical track 31 March and 25 August), with one registration, a 200 JOD fee, a 60% pass mark, and a pass valid for 3 years. Under council session 146 (10/09/2025) each track paper has 100 questions: surgical track = general surgery 60, obstetrics and gynecology 30, surgical subspecialties 10; non-surgical track = internal medicine 60, pediatrics 30, internal medicine subspecialties 10. Council session 132 (24/04/2024) lets candidates who pass either track enter family medicine, emergency medicine, diagnostic radiology, or anesthesia. Government hospitals fill vacancies by exam rank and candidate preference, while other accredited centres may add interviews or oral exams.
  • Time limit: not-published
  • Exam / certification fees: 200 JOD (300 JOD when combined with the Imtiyaz exam) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

PMC Residency Entrance Exam: Suggested Study Strategy

1Decide your track early and focus on its categories, which are labelled by track in this bank.
2Spend most of your time on the 60-question core subject: general surgery for the surgical track or internal medicine for the non-surgical track.
3Do not neglect the 30-question second subject (obstetrics and gynecology or pediatrics), which is almost a third of your paper.
4Review emergency management and current guidelines across your track, because PMC does not publish a detailed sub-topic outline.
5Remember that a pass is valid for 3 years, and plan your attempt around the age limit of 35 at first application.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the PMC residency admission exam?

It is the Palestinian Medical Council's admission exam for the national specialty training programme (امتحان القبول للبرنامج الوطني للتدريب التخصصي). Doctors must pass it to enter PMC-supervised residency training in Palestinian hospitals.

Do I take both track papers?

No. Each candidate sits one 100-question track paper: surgical (general surgery 60, obstetrics and gynecology 30, surgical subspecialties 10) or non-surgical (internal medicine 60, pediatrics 30, internal medicine subspecialties 10). A pass in either track allows entry to family medicine, emergency medicine, diagnostic radiology, and anesthesia.

Who is eligible, and how long is a pass valid?

Candidates need a licence to practise and permanent registration with the Medical Association after completing the internship and passing the PMC (Imtiyaz) exam, and must be no older than 35 at their first attempt. The pass mark is 60%, and a pass is valid for 3 years.

How is this practice bank organized?

Half of the practice questions follow the surgical track and half the non-surgical track, each split 60/30/10 like the official papers. Categories are labelled by track so you can focus on the paper you will sit. These are English-language practice MCQs, not an official combined paper.

Are these official PMC exam questions?

No. They are independent practice questions written by OpenExamPrep using PMC's published track weightings as a guide. They are not official PMC questions and are not endorsed by PMC.