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Free Practice Questions for PMC Medicine Licensure

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Key Facts: PMC Medicine Licensure Exam

126

Exam questions

PMC August 2026 announcement

2.5 hours

Single exam session

PMC August 2026 announcement

50%

Pass mark (63 of 126)

PMC August 2026 announcement

100 JOD

Imtiyaz exam fee

PMC August 2026 announcement

4 × 30 + 6

Specialty questions plus ethics

PMC Imtiyaz exam page

2/year

Sittings (26 Mar and 18 Aug 2026)

PMC 2026 exam schedule

The Palestinian Medical Council (PMC) Comprehensive Examination for Human Medicine (الامتحان الإجمالي للطب البشري), also announced as the Imtiyaz practice exam, has 126 questions in one 2.5-hour session: 30 each in general surgery, obstetrics and gynecology, internal medicine, and pediatrics, plus 6 on professional ethics. The pass mark is 50% (63 correct) and the fee is 100 JOD; the 2026 sittings were 26 March and 18 August. OpenExamPrep offers independent English-language MCQs weighted to these areas as a study aid; they are not official PMC questions or a simulation of the exam format.

Sample PMC Medicine Licensure Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the PMC Medicine Licensure exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 105+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to the emergency department with severe substernal chest pressure radiating to his left shoulder and jaw for 90 minutes. ECG demonstrates 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V4 with reciprocal ST depression in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the immediate definitive reperfusion strategy of choice if the patient is at a PCI-capable center?
A.Immediate intravenous thrombolysis with tenecteplase within 30 minutes
B.Emergent coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery within 24 hours
C.Primary PCI, aiming for a door-to-balloon time under 90 minutes
D.Oral administration of high-dose metoprolol and observation in the telemetry unit
Explanation: In patients presenting with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) at a PCI-capable hospital, primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the gold standard reperfusion modality. The target door-to-balloon time is under 90 minutes. Primary PCI achieves superior rates of complete infarct artery recanalization (TIMI 3 flow), lower re-infarction, and lower stroke rates compared to fibrinolytic therapy.
2A 65-year-old female with chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, LVEF 28%) on guideline-directed medical therapy with an ACE inhibitor and a beta-blocker continues to experience NYHA Class III dyspnea. Her serum potassium is 4.2 mEq/L and eGFR is 55 mL/min/1.73m2. Which medication should be added next to reduce mortality and hospitalizations?
A.Digoxin
B.Verapamil
C.Furosemide at double the current dose
D.Spironolactone
Explanation: Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRAs like spironolactone or eplerenone) are class I recommended components of foundational quadruple medical therapy for HFrEF (along with ARNI/ACEi, beta-blocker, and SGLT2 inhibitor) in patients with LVEF <= 35% and persistent symptoms, provided serum potassium is < 5.0 mEq/L and eGFR is > 30 mL/min/1.73m2. The RALES trial demonstrated a 30% reduction in all-cause mortality with spironolactone.
3A 72-year-old male with persistent non-valvular atrial fibrillation has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a prior ischemic stroke 3 years ago. His CHA2DS2-VASc score is 5. What is the most appropriate long-term stroke prevention strategy?
A.Oral anticoagulation, preferably a DOAC such as apixaban
B.Aspirin 81 mg daily alone
C.Clopidogrel 75 mg daily plus aspirin 81 mg daily
D.Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin for 2 weeks only
Explanation: In non-valvular atrial fibrillation, a CHA2DS2-VASc score of >= 2 in men indicates high annual thromboembolic risk (~6.7%/year at score 5). Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs like apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, or edoxaban) are preferred over warfarin due to lower rates of intracranial hemorrhage and non-inferior/superior efficacy in stroke prevention. Antiplatelet monotherapy or dual antiplatelet therapy provides inadequate stroke protection and is no longer recommended.
4A 45-year-old female presents with acute shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain 5 days after undergoing a total right knee replacement. Vital signs show BP 115/75 mmHg, HR 118 bpm, RR 26 breaths/min, and SpO2 88% on room air. CT pulmonary angiography confirms a filling defect in the right main pulmonary artery. Transthoracic echocardiogram shows normal right ventricular size and function, and cardiac biomarkers are normal. What is the first-line therapeutic management?
A.Immediate systemic intravenous thrombolysis with alteplase
B.Therapeutic anticoagulation with LMWH or a DOAC
C.Surgical pulmonary embolectomy under cardiopulmonary bypass
D.Placement of an inferior vena cava filter without anticoagulation
Explanation: This patient has an acute, hemodynamically stable pulmonary embolism without right ventricular dysfunction or raised cardiac biomarkers, so it is not a high-risk PE. The treatment of choice is therapeutic anticoagulation with low-molecular-weight heparin or a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. Systemic thrombolysis is reserved for high-risk PE with hemodynamic instability (for example, sustained systolic BP below 90 mmHg) or for rescue if the patient deteriorates.
5A 68-year-old male with a 40 pack-year smoking history presents with fever, productive cough with rust-colored sputum, and dyspnea for 3 days. Vital signs: BP 100/65 mmHg, HR 98 bpm, RR 24/min, temperature 38.8 C, and SpO2 93% on room air. Chest radiograph shows dense right middle lobe consolidation. He is oriented in time, place, and person. Blood urea nitrogen is 14 mg/dL. According to the CURB-65 score, what is his score and recommended disposition?
A.CURB-65 score 0; discharge home on oral amoxicillin
B.CURB-65 score 1; suitable for outpatient treatment or short observation
C.CURB-65 score 3; urgent admission to the intensive care unit (ICU)
D.CURB-65 score 4; emergency intubation
Explanation: The CURB-65 score evaluates: Confusion (0), Urea > 19 mg/dL / 7 mmol/L (0), Respiratory rate >= 30/min (0, patient is 24), Blood pressure < 90 systolic or <= 60 diastolic (0, patient is 100/65), and Age >= 65 years (1, patient is 68). His score is 1 (due to age >= 65 alone). Patients with a CURB-65 score of 0 or 1 have low 30-day mortality (< 2-3%) and are candidates for outpatient management with oral antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin-clavulanate plus macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone), subject to clinical judgment and home support.
6A 32-year-old male with long-standing poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency room with vomiting, deep rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing), and diffuse abdominal pain. Labs: plasma glucose 480 mg/dL, arterial blood gas pH 7.18, PaCO2 22 mmHg, HCO3 9 mEq/L, serum sodium 134 mEq/L, serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L, and urine ketones 4+. What is the initial resuscitation priority?
A.Intravenous bolus of regular insulin at 0.5 units/kg followed by subcutaneous glargine
B.Intravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion of 100 mEq over 30 minutes
C.Administration of 40 mEq potassium chloride IV push
D.Rapid intravenous fluid resuscitation with isotonic (0.9%) saline at 1000 mL/hour
Explanation: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), profound volume depletion (typically 5 to 8 liters water deficit) is present. The first and most critical resuscitation step is aggressive intravenous fluid replacement with 0.9% normal saline (1 to 1.5 L in the first hour) to restore effective circulating volume and renal perfusion. Insulin infusion should follow initial hydration once hypokalemia is excluded (K+ > 3.3 mEq/L).
7A 54-year-old male with chronic hepatitis B cirrhosis presents with massive hematemesis and melena. Vital signs: BP 85/50 mmHg, HR 125 bpm. After initiating two large-bore IV lines, volume resuscitation with packed red blood cells to a target hemoglobin of 7-8 g/dL, and starting IV ceftriaxone, what is the drug of choice to reduce portal venous inflow while preparing for urgent endoscopy?
A.IV octreotide bolus followed by an infusion
B.Oral propranolol to lower portal pressure
C.Intravenous pantoprazole alone without vasoactive agents
D.High-dose IV tranexamic acid bolus and infusion
Explanation: In acute variceal hemorrhage, vasoactive medications (octreotide, terlipressin, or somatostatin) should be initiated as soon as variceal bleeding is suspected. Octreotide causes selective splanchnic vasoconstriction by inhibiting glucagon release, significantly decreasing portal blood flow and variceal pressure, thereby facilitating successful endoscopic band ligation.
8Which diagnostic finding confirms spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) upon diagnostic paracentesis in a patient with decompensated cirrhotic ascites?
A.Ascitic fluid total protein > 3.0 g/dL
B.Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) < 1.1 g/dL
C.Ascitic neutrophil (PMN) count of at least 250 cells/mm3
D.Positive Gram stain for acid-fast bacilli
Explanation: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is diagnosed when the ascitic fluid absolute polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN) count is >= 250 cells/mm3 (calculated as total WBC count multiplied by % neutrophils), in the absence of an intra-abdominal surgically treatable source. Empiric broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy (e.g., IV cefotaxime or ceftriaxone) should be initiated immediately, along with IV albumin to reduce the incidence of hepatorenal syndrome.
9A 48-year-old male with end-stage renal disease misses two hemodialysis sessions. He presents with severe muscle weakness. ECG demonstrates tall, peaked, narrow T waves with a shortened QT interval in precordial leads. Serum potassium is 7.4 mEq/L. What is the immediate first medication to administer?
A.Intravenous regular insulin with 50% dextrose
B.Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
C.Nebulized salbutamol 10–20 mg
D.Intravenous calcium gluconate (10%) over 2 to 3 minutes
Explanation: In severe hyperkalemia with electrocardiographic changes (peaked T waves, PR prolongation, widened QRS, or sine wave), the immediate life-saving intervention is IV calcium gluconate (10 mL of 10% solution over 2-3 minutes). Calcium does not lower serum potassium, but directly antagonizes potassium's membrane excitability effect, restoring the threshold potential and stabilizing the cardiac myocyte membrane within 1 to 3 minutes to prevent fatal ventricular arrhythmias.
10A 24-year-old female presents with fatigue, polyarthralgias, photosensitivity, and a malar rash over her cheeks sparing the nasolabial folds. Urinalysis demonstrates 3+ proteinuria with red blood cell casts. Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) are positive (1:640 titer). Which autoantibody is most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and correlates with active lupus nephritis?
A.Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies
B.Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies
C.Anti-centromere antibodies
D.Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies
Explanation: Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) and anti-Smith (anti-Sm) antibodies are highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Anti-dsDNA titers fluctuate with disease activity and correlate closely with the development and flares of active lupus nephritis. Anti-Sm is highly specific but does not track clinical disease activity.

About the PMC Medicine Licensure Exam

The Palestinian Medical Council's comprehensive (Imtiyaz) practice-licensing examination for human medicine: 126 questions in 2.5 hours across four core specialties and professional ethics, with a 50% pass mark.

Exam sponsor: Palestinian Medical Council (PMC / المجلس الطبي الفلسطيني). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

PMC's comprehensive (Imtiyaz) examination for human medicine has 126 questions in a single 2.5-hour session: General Surgery 30, Obstetrics and Gynecology 30, Internal Medicine 30, Pediatrics 30, and 6 questions on professional ethics. The pass mark is 50% (63 correct). The exam is held twice a year alongside the residency admission exam; the 2026 sittings were 26 March and 18 August.

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes (one session)

Passing Score

50% (63 of 126 correct)

Exam / Certification Fees

100 JOD (300 JOD when combined with the residency admission exam)

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

30 of 126 questions

Internal Medicine (الطب الباطني)

Acute coronary syndromes, heart failure, atrial fibrillation, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, ARDS, diabetic emergencies, liver disease and its complications, kidney disease, hematology, rheumatology, infections, and neurologic emergencies.

30 of 126 questions

General Surgery (الجراحة العامة)

Appendicitis, biliary disease and cholangitis, bowel obstruction and perforation, hernias, ATLS trauma care, burns resuscitation, shock, vascular emergencies, endocrine surgery, and postoperative complications.

30 of 126 questions

Pediatrics (طب الأطفال)

Neonatal resuscitation and jaundice, respiratory distress, developmental milestones, vaccine contraindications, bronchiolitis, croup and epiglottitis, congenital heart disease, pediatric surgery emergencies, renal disease, and inborn errors of metabolism.

30 of 126 questions

Obstetrics & Gynecology (الأمراض النسائية والتوليد)

Prenatal screening, Rh prophylaxis, gestational diabetes, preeclampsia and eclampsia, labor and fetal monitoring, obstetric emergencies and hemorrhage, ectopic pregnancy, gynecologic infections and oncology, and contraception.

6 of 126 questions

Professional Ethics (أخلاقيات المهنة)

Confidentiality, valid informed consent, the emergency exception, research ethics committee review, and conflicts of interest.

Preparing for the PMC Medicine Licensure Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 50% (63 of 126 correct)
  • Assessment: PMC's comprehensive (Imtiyaz) examination for human medicine has 126 questions in a single 2.5-hour session: General Surgery 30, Obstetrics and Gynecology 30, Internal Medicine 30, Pediatrics 30, and 6 questions on professional ethics. The pass mark is 50% (63 correct). The exam is held twice a year alongside the residency admission exam; the 2026 sittings were 26 March and 18 August.
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes (one session)
  • Exam / certification fees: 100 JOD (300 JOD when combined with the residency admission exam) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 105 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

PMC Medicine Licensure: Suggested Study Strategy

1Split your time evenly across the four specialties, which each carry 30 of the 126 questions, and keep some time for the 6 ethics questions.
2With 126 questions in 150 minutes, practice working at a little over one minute per question.
3Focus on emergency algorithms that recur across specialties: STEMI, DKA, hyperkalemia, sepsis, eclampsia, postpartum hemorrhage, and neonatal resuscitation.
4Learn first-line drug choices and their common traps, such as alpha-blockade before beta-blockade in pheochromocytoma and insulin first in gestational diabetes under ACOG.
5For ethics, practice applying consent, confidentiality, and conflict-of-interest principles to short clinical scenarios.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the PMC Imtiyaz exam for human medicine?

It is the Palestinian Medical Council's comprehensive examination for human medicine (الامتحان الإجمالي للطب البشري), which PMC also announces as the Imtiyaz practice-licensing exam. It has 126 questions across general surgery, obstetrics and gynecology, internal medicine, pediatrics, and professional ethics.

Who has to take it?

Article 20 of PMC Executive Regulation No. 14 of 2012 (as amended in 2023) requires a degree from a recognized medical school that has been certified or equated, completion of the internship year (or at least 11 months of it), and temporary syndicate registration. PMC's exam page states that graduates of medical schools in Palestine and Jordan are exempt, so check PMC's current registration announcement for your situation.

How many questions are there, and how long is the exam?

PMC's 2026 announcements list 126 questions in a single 2.5-hour session: 30 each in general surgery, obstetrics and gynecology, internal medicine, and pediatrics, plus 6 on professional ethics. The exam is held twice a year; the 2026 sittings were 26 March and 18 August.

What is the pass mark and fee?

The pass mark is 50%, which PMC states as 63 correct answers out of 126. The fee is 100 Jordanian dinars for the Imtiyaz exam, or 300 dinars when registering together with the residency admission exam.

In what language is the exam, and are these official questions?

PMC does not state the question language or item format on its exam page. The questions here are independent English-language multiple-choice questions written by OpenExamPrep and weighted to PMC's published specialties. They are not official PMC items, translations, or a simulation of the exam.