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Sample Matura Chemistry Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Matura Chemistry exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which electron configuration represents an unexcited (ground-state) chromium atom (₂₄Cr) and correctly accounts for its anomalous subshell occupancy?
A.[Ar] 3d⁴ 4s² because the 4s subshell must be completely filled before filling the 3d subshell
B.[Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ due to the thermodynamic stability associated with a half-filled 3d subshell
C.[Ar] 3d⁶ 4s⁰ because empty 4s subshells always provide greater stability than half-filled d subshells
D.[Ar] 3d³ 4s² 4p¹ because the 4p orbital begins filling simultaneously with the 3d subshell
Explanation: Chromium has 24 electrons and exhibits an anomalous ground-state electron configuration of [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ rather than the expected [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s². Promoting one electron from the 4s orbital to the 3d subshell yields a spherically symmetrical, half-filled d subshell with five unpaired electrons, which maximises exchange energy and minimises electron-electron repulsion.
2Which set of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) correctly describes the single valence electron of a potassium atom (₁₉K) in its ground state?
A.n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +½
B.n = 4, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = +½
C.n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +½
D.n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = +½
Explanation: Potassium (Z = 19) has the ground-state electron configuration [Ar] 4s¹. The valence electron resides in the fourth shell (principal quantum number n = 4) in an s orbital (azimuthal quantum number l = 0), which permits only the magnetic quantum number ml = 0 and a spin quantum number ms = +½ (or −½).
3Why does phosphorus (₁₅P) have a higher first ionisation energy (1012 kJ/mol) than sulfur (₁₆S, 1000 kJ/mol), despite sulfur having a higher nuclear charge?
A.Phosphorus has a half-filled 3p subshell (3p³), which confers extra stability compared to the paired 3p⁴ configuration in sulfur where electron-electron repulsion occurs
B.Phosphorus has a significantly higher effective nuclear charge than sulfur
C.The valence electrons in phosphorus occupy a shell closer to the nucleus than those in sulfur
D.Sulfur has a lower atomic mass, reducing the electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and outer electrons
Explanation: Phosphorus has the valence configuration 3s² 3p³, where each of the three 3p orbitals contains a single unpaired electron with parallel spins (half-filled stability). Sulfur has the valence configuration 3s² 3p⁴, containing one doubly occupied 3p orbital where electron-electron repulsion within the same orbital makes removing that first electron energetically easier.
4Which of the following sequences correctly arranges the isoelectronic species O²⁻, F⁻, Na⁺, and Mg²⁺ in order of decreasing ionic radius?
A.Mg²⁺ > Na⁺ > F⁻ > O²⁻
B.Na⁺ > Mg²⁺ > O²⁻ > F⁻
C.F⁻ > O²⁻ > Mg²⁺ > Na⁺
D.O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺ > Mg²⁺
Explanation: All four species possess 10 electrons with the neon electron configuration, 1s² 2s² 2p⁶. As nuclear charge increases (O: 8, F: 9, Na: 11, Mg: 12), attraction between the nucleus and the same number of electrons increases. The ionic radius therefore decreases in the order O²⁻ > F⁻ > Na⁺ > Mg²⁺.
5According to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory, what is the molecular geometry of sulfur tetrafluoride (SF₄)?
A.Square planar
B.See-saw
C.Tetrahedral
D.Trigonal pyramidal
Explanation: Sulfur has 6 valence electrons and forms 4 single covalent bonds with fluorine atoms, leaving 1 non-bonding lone pair (steric number = 5). The electron-pair geometry is trigonal bipyramidal; placing the lone pair in an equatorial position to minimise 90° lone pair-bonding pair repulsions yields a see-saw molecular shape.
6What is the hybridisation of the carbon atoms in a molecule of 1,3-butadiene (CH₂=CH–CH=CH₂)?
A.All four carbon atoms are sp² hybridised
B.C1 and C4 are sp² hybridised, while C2 and C3 are sp³ hybridised
C.C1 and C4 are sp hybridised, while C2 and C3 are sp² hybridised
D.All four carbon atoms are sp³ hybridised
Explanation: In 1,3-butadiene, each of the four carbon atoms forms three σ bonds (either to hydrogen or adjacent carbons) and possesses one unhybridised 2p orbital participating in conjugated π bonding. A steric number of 3 corresponds to sp² hybridisation for all four carbons, creating a planar conjugated system.
7Ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH, M = 46 g/mol) has a normal boiling point of 78 °C, whereas dimethyl ether (CH₃OCH₃, M = 46 g/mol) boils at −24 °C and propane (CH₃CH₂CH₃, M = 44 g/mol) boils at −42 °C. What primary factor explains ethanol's significantly higher boiling point?
A.Ethanol has a much higher molecular mass, leading to dominant London dispersion forces
B.Dimethyl ether exhibits ionic bonding between its methyl groups and oxygen atom
C.Ethanol molecules form strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds via the hydroxyl (-OH) group, requiring significantly more thermal energy to separate
D.Propane forms permanent dipole-dipole attractions stronger than the dispersion forces in ethanol
Explanation: Ethanol contains a hydrogen atom covalently bound to a highly electronegative oxygen atom (-OH group), allowing it to form extensive intermolecular hydrogen bonds in the liquid state. Neither dimethyl ether (which lacks an O-H bond and relies only on weak dipole-dipole interactions) nor propane (a non-polar alkane governed by weak London dispersion forces) can form hydrogen bonds.
8Which of the following polyatomic molecules contains polar covalent bonds but has an overall electric dipole moment of zero (μ = 0 D) due to its spatial symmetry?
A.Nitrogen trifluoride (NF₃)
B.Boron trifluoride (BF₃)
C.Sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
D.Water (H₂O)
Explanation: Boron trifluoride (BF₃) possesses three highly polar B–F bonds. Because the boron atom is sp² hybridised with zero non-bonding electron pairs, the molecule adopts a trigonal planar geometry (120° bond angles) where the three bond dipole vectors cancel vectorially to yield a net dipole moment of zero.
9How many unpaired electrons are present in an isolated gaseous iron(III) ion (Fe³⁺) in its ground electronic state?
A.5
B.3
C.1
D.0
Explanation: Neutral iron (Z = 26) has the ground-state electron configuration [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s². Upon forming Fe³⁺, the two 4s electrons are lost first, followed by one 3d electron, leaving [Ar] 3d⁵. In accord with Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity, the five 3d electrons occupy each of the five degenerate 3d orbitals singly with parallel spins, giving exactly 5 unpaired electrons.
10Based on ionic charge and ionic radius considerations, which of the following crystalline compounds exhibits the greatest lattice energy (in absolute magnitude)?
A.Sodium chloride (NaCl)
B.Potassium chloride (KCl)
C.Barium oxide (BaO)
D.Magnesium oxide (MgO)
Explanation: Lattice energy is directly proportional to the product of ionic charges (|z₊ × z₋|) and inversely proportional to the interionic distance (r₊ + r₋). In MgO, both ions carry divalent charges (|z₊ × z₋| = 4), which is quadruple that of monovalent salts like NaCl and KCl (|z₊ × z₋| = 1). Between MgO and BaO, Mg²⁺ has a much smaller ionic radius than Ba²⁺, giving MgO the shortest interionic distance and highest lattice energy (~3791 kJ/mol).

About the Matura Chemistry Exam

Independent practice for Polish Matura Chemistry. This is an English-language MCQ study adaptation, not an official translation, an official-format simulation, or a simulation of the official language environment. It provides selected topic revision and does not substitute for writing full responses in the official assessment language.

Exam sponsor: Centralna Komisja Egzaminacyjna (CKE) and the regional Okręgowe Komisje Egzaminacyjne (OKE), Poland. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Written chemical reasoning, calculations, experimental observations, and equations.

Time Limit

180 minutes

Passing Score

No minimum score for an additional extended-level subject in 2026. Certificate rules separately require 30% in each compulsory written and oral exam and attendance at an additional subject unless exempt.

Exam / Certification Fees

Generally free. In 2026, PLN 50 per subject, part, and level applies to third and subsequent sittings and certain previously declared additional-exam no-shows. OKE fee exemptions may apply; check the individual payment obligation.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

15% of this study bank

Atomic Structure, Periodic Table & Chemical Bonding

Subatomic particles, electron configurations (spdf notation), periodic properties, chemical bond types, and VSEPR spatial molecular models.

20% of this study bank

Physical Chemistry, Thermodynamics & Equilibrium

Enthalpy, Hess's Law, chemical kinetics, Le Chatelier's principle, equilibrium constants (Kc, Kp), pH calculations, and buffer solutions.

25% of this study bank

Inorganic Chemistry, Redox & Electrochemistry

Properties and reactions of main group and transition metals, redox half-reactions, galvanic cells, electrolysis, and coordination complexes.

25% of this study bank

Organic Chemistry: Hydrocarbons & Functional Groups

Structures, IUPAC nomenclature, reaction mechanisms (radical, electrophilic, nucleophilic), optical and geometric isomerism, and organic synthesis pathways.

15% of this study bank

Biomolecules, Polymers & Laboratory Techniques

Carbohydrates, amino acids, peptide linkages, fats, polymers, laboratory safety, qualitative identification tests, and empirical observation analysis.

Preparing for the Matura Chemistry Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: No minimum score for an additional extended-level subject in 2026. Certificate rules separately require 30% in each compulsory written and oral exam and attendance at an additional subject unless exempt.
  • Assessment: Written chemical reasoning, calculations, experimental observations, and equations.
  • Time limit: 180 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: Generally free. In 2026, PLN 50 per subject, part, and level applies to third and subsequent sittings and certain previously declared additional-exam no-shows. OKE fee exemptions may apply; check the individual payment obligation. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
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Matura Chemistry: Suggested Study Strategy

1Work through full calculations and write balanced equations and experimental observations.
2Use the CKE informator and released papers for the complete scope and scoring criteria. These MCQs cover selected topics and skills rather than every assessed requirement.

Frequently Asked Questions

What does this practice bank cover?

Independent practice for Polish Matura Chemistry. This is an English-language MCQ study adaptation, not an official translation, an official-format simulation, or a simulation of the official language environment. It provides selected topic revision and does not substitute for writing full responses in the official assessment language. The section percentages describe this study bank, not official topic weightings. Consult the CKE informator for the complete requirements.

Are there separate assignments or performance requirements for this subject paper?

The subject assessment described here is the examination itself; no separate coursework portfolio or advance assignment is specified. Written chemical reasoning, calculations, experimental observations, and equations. Whole-certificate requirements and accommodations are governed by the 2026 CKE instructions.

Who can sit the examination, and what does it cost?

Eligible secondary-school graduates must submit the examination declaration. The applicable formula and subject requirements depend on school type, graduation cohort, and prior examination history; consult the 2026 CKE instructions. Generally free. In 2026, PLN 50 per subject, part, and level applies to third and subsequent sittings and certain previously declared additional-exam no-shows. OKE fee exemptions may apply; check the individual payment obligation.