All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for FCPS-II Medicine

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
40+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Same family resources

Explore More CPSP Pakistan Postgraduate Medical Exams

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

Sample FCPS-II Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the FCPS-II Medicine exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 40+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A man develops persistent chest pressure 90 minutes before arriving at a PCI-capable hospital. ECG shows inferior ST elevation with reciprocal changes. The catheterisation team can perform primary PCI in 45 minutes. Which reperfusion strategy is preferred?
A.Fibrinolysis before transfer to another hospital
B.Coronary angiography after a trial of medical treatment overnight
C.Immediate primary PCI
D.Emergency CABG before coronary anatomy is defined
Explanation: This is an acute STEMI with timely primary PCI available. Activate the catheterisation pathway while providing the other indicated acute coronary syndrome treatments; waiting to assess response to medical treatment delays reperfusion.
2A patient has a regular monomorphic wide-complex tachycardia at 190/min with a palpable pulse, blood pressure 72/40 mmHg and new confusion. Defibrillator pads are attached. What is the next rhythm treatment?
A.Adenosine while preparing for elective cardioversion
B.Immediate synchronised cardioversion
C.An amiodarone infusion followed by reassessment in 30 minutes
D.Unsynchronised defibrillation as the routine first choice for this rhythm
Explanation: Hypotension and altered mental status indicate haemodynamic instability attributable to the tachycardia. A regular monomorphic rhythm with a pulse should receive immediate synchronised cardioversion, with sedation when feasible without delaying treatment.
3A stable patient with symptomatic HFrEF and an ejection fraction of 30% takes an ARNI, an evidence-based beta-blocker and a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist. Renal function permits an SGLT2 inhibitor. He does not have diabetes. Which addition has established heart-failure outcome benefits regardless of diabetes status?
A.Sitagliptin
B.Pioglitazone
C.Verapamil
D.Dapagliflozin
Explanation: Dapagliflozin is an SGLT2 inhibitor used as a foundational HFrEF therapy. Its reduction in heart-failure hospitalisation and cardiovascular death is not restricted to patients with type 2 diabetes.
4A 76-year-old man with atrial fibrillation has hypertension and a previous TIA, but no heart failure, diabetes or vascular disease. Echocardiography shows moderate rheumatic mitral stenosis. There is no contraindication to anticoagulation. Which CHA2DS2-VASc score and long-term anticoagulant choice are correct?
A.Score 5; warfarin
B.Score 4; warfarin
C.Score 5; apixaban
D.Score 4; aspirin alone
Explanation: Age at least 75 contributes 2 points, hypertension 1 and previous TIA 2, giving a score of 5. Moderate rheumatic mitral stenosis is a setting in which warfarin is recommended over a direct oral anticoagulant; anticoagulation is indicated irrespective of this calculated score.
5Four days after a transmural myocardial infarction, a patient develops shock and a new harsh pansystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border. Urgent colour Doppler echocardiography shows blood flowing from the left ventricle into the right ventricle through a new septal defect. Which complication explains the findings?
A.Papillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation
B.Left ventricular free-wall rupture with tamponade
C.Post-infarction ventricular septal rupture
D.Acute right ventricular infarction without a structural rupture
Explanation: A new interventricular left-to-right shunt after infarction identifies ventricular septal rupture. This mechanical complication can rapidly cause circulatory collapse and requires urgent specialist stabilisation and a repair strategy.
6Despite initial bronchodilators, corticosteroids and controlled oxygen, a patient with an acute COPD exacerbation remains breathless with pH 7.28 and PaCO2 68 mmHg. He is alert, cooperative, haemodynamically stable and able to protect his airway. Which ventilatory support should usually be tried first in a monitored setting with access to intubation?
A.Bilevel non-invasive ventilation
B.CPAP alone without inspiratory pressure support
C.Immediate intubation solely because PaCO2 exceeds 60 mmHg
D.Higher-concentration oxygen alone instead of ventilatory assistance
Explanation: Persistent acidotic hypercapnic ventilatory failure during a COPD exacerbation is an indication for non-invasive ventilation when the patient is suitable. Clinical status and blood gases need close reassessment, with escalation if NIV fails or airway protection deteriorates.
7A 50-year-old with community-acquired pneumonia is alert, with urea 6 mmol/L, respiratory rate 24/min and blood pressure 116/68 mmHg. However, room-air oxygen saturation is 82%. Which interpretation of CURB-65 is most appropriate?
A.Score 0; discharge is mandatory regardless of oxygenation
B.Score 1; severe hypoxaemia is a CURB-65 scoring component
C.Score 2; age above 50 and respiratory rate above 20 each score a point
D.Score 0; severe hypoxaemia still requires urgent hospital assessment and treatment
Explanation: None of the five CURB-65 criteria is present, giving a score of 0. Oxygen saturation is not a component, so the score can understate clinically important illness; marked hypoxaemia requires urgent hospital assessment rather than automatic discharge.
8Pleural fluid protein is 2.4 g/dL and serum protein 6.0 g/dL. Pleural LDH is 170 U/L, serum LDH 300 U/L and the laboratory upper reference limit for serum LDH 240 U/L. Applying Light's criteria, how is the effusion classified?
A.Transudate because both fluid-to-serum ratios are below their cutoffs
B.Exudate because pleural LDH exceeds two-thirds of the serum LDH upper reference limit
C.Exudate because the protein ratio is greater than 0.5
D.Indeterminate because all three criteria must be positive
Explanation: The protein ratio is 0.40 and LDH ratio approximately 0.57, so those two criteria are negative. Two-thirds of the serum LDH upper limit is 160 U/L, and pleural LDH is 170 U/L: one positive criterion is sufficient for an exudate classification, which still needs interpretation in the clinical context.
9An invasively ventilated patient has ARDS. Predicted body weight calculated from sex and height is 60 kg, while actual weight is 95 kg. Which initial tidal-volume target best represents a lung-protective strategy?
A.950 mL, using 10 mL/kg actual weight
B.570 mL, using 6 mL/kg actual weight
C.360 mL, using 6 mL/kg predicted weight
D.600 mL, using 10 mL/kg predicted weight
Explanation: A commonly used initial target is 6 mL/kg predicted body weight: 60 × 6 = 360 mL. Tidal volume is adjusted within a lung-protective range while monitoring gas exchange and limiting plateau pressure, generally to below 30 cm H2O.
10An adult with asthma has a first symptomatic episode of newly diagnosed allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. There have been no recurrent ABPA exacerbations. Under the revised ISHAM recommendations, which statement about initial systemic treatment is most accurate?
A.Prednisolone and itraconazole must always be started together
B.Oral prednisolone or itraconazole monotherapy can be used
C.Inhaled corticosteroid escalation alone is the recommended ABPA treatment
D.An echinocandin is preferred to either prednisolone or itraconazole
Explanation: For acute ABPA, including newly diagnosed symptomatic disease, the revised ISHAM guidance recommends oral prednisolone or itraconazole monotherapy. Routine combination treatment is not required for a first episode; prednisolone plus itraconazole is recommended for recurrent exacerbations, with individual contraindications and interactions considered.

About the FCPS-II Medicine Exam

CPSP FCPS-II Medicine is a specialty fellowship examination after prescribed postgraduate training. The official Medicine prospectus covers organ-system medicine as well as dermatology, psychiatry, geriatrics, professional skills and other areas. This resource offers independent English-language MCQ practice for a selected clinical subset. It does not cover every specialty or the complete Medicine curriculum. It is an MCQ study adaptation of a mixed written and clinical assessment, not an official translation, a TOACS or viva simulation, or a substitute for clinical examination, communication, procedural and patient-facing practice.

Exam sponsor: College of Physicians and Surgeons Pakistan (CPSP). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

For Medicine in Pakistan, two online papers each contain 100 single-best-answer MCQs and last 2½ hours. Theory qualification is followed by TOACS and long/short clinical cases with oral assessment. Current training documentation and workplace assessments are separate requirements; overseas theory arrangements can differ.

Time Limit

2½ hours per Pakistan online theory paper; 5 hours total theory examination time, excluding breaks. Clinical scheduling is separate.

Passing Score

Theory threshold not verified in the current public sources reviewed. The February 2027 notice specifies TOACS 55% for current-sitting cases, or 60% and above for current and subsequent cases while theory remains valid. This is not a universal 60% pass rule for all components.

Exam / Certification Fees

Rs. 15,050 standard Pakistan fee (Rs. 15,000 plus Rs. 50 handling), confirmed in the September 2026 notice for February 2027; late fees and sitting-specific conditions apply.

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Not publicly published in the official sources reviewed. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

5/40 practice questions

Cardiology

Acute coronary reperfusion, unstable tachycardia, HFrEF medicines, AF risk calculation and post-infarction rupture.

5/40 practice questions

Pulmonology

COPD ventilatory support, CURB-65, Light's criteria, ARDS tidal volumes and initial ABPA treatment.

4/40 practice questions

Gastroenterology and Hepatology

Early variceal-bleeding care, pancreatitis hydration, steroid-refractory colitis and coeliac serology.

4/40 practice questions

Nephrology and Acid-Base Disorders

Cardiac protection in hyperkalaemia, FeNa limitations and mixed acid-base calculations.

4/40 practice questions

Neurology

Early stroke thrombolysis and thrombectomy, late negative CT in suspected SAH and GBS immunotherapy.

4/40 practice questions

Endocrinology

Potassium before DKA insulin, HHS correction rates and sodium changes, and ACTH stimulation testing.

4/40 practice questions

Infectious Diseases

Culture-directed typhoid care, severe malaria, hypoxaemic PCP and category III rabies exposure.

4/40 practice questions

Rheumatology

Initial disease modification in RA, urgent GCA treatment, allopurinol during a flare and renal crisis in systemic sclerosis.

3/40 practice questions

Haematology

Immediate immune-TTP treatment, 4Ts calculation and HIT management, and targeted APL induction.

3/40 practice questions

Critical Care and Toxicology

Septic shock vasopressor escalation, immediate anaphylaxis treatment and N-acetylcysteine mechanism.

Preparing for the FCPS-II Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Theory threshold not verified in the current public sources reviewed. The February 2027 notice specifies TOACS 55% for current-sitting cases, or 60% and above for current and subsequent cases while theory remains valid. This is not a universal 60% pass rule for all components.
  • Assessment: For Medicine in Pakistan, two online papers each contain 100 single-best-answer MCQs and last 2½ hours. Theory qualification is followed by TOACS and long/short clinical cases with oral assessment. Current training documentation and workplace assessments are separate requirements; overseas theory arrangements can differ.
  • Time limit: 2½ hours per Pakistan online theory paper; 5 hours total theory examination time, excluding breaks. Clinical scheduling is separate.
  • Exam / certification fees: Rs. 15,050 standard Pakistan fee (Rs. 15,000 plus Rs. 50 handling), confirmed in the September 2026 notice for February 2027; late fees and sitting-specific conditions apply. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 40 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

FCPS-II Medicine: Suggested Study Strategy

1Use the current CPSP Medicine prospectus as a study checklist, including areas outside this limited question set such as dermatology, psychiatry and geriatrics.
2Work through calculations with units and explicit reference values, then explain how the result changes a clinical decision.
3Read the feedback for each distractor and identify when that alternative might be appropriate in a different patient.
4Check current clinical guidance and local antimicrobial susceptibility results rather than memorising universal treatment claims.
5Prepare TOACS, case examination, communication, procedures and oral presentation through separate supervised practice.

Frequently Asked Questions

Which FCPS-II specialty does this resource cover?

This is a selected Medicine study set. FCPS-II has specialty-specific examinations; these questions do not represent Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology, Paediatrics, Ophthalmology or every Medicine topic.

What are the official format and assessment language?

For Pakistan Medicine theory, CPSP specifies two computer-based papers of 100 SBAs and 2½ hours each. Candidates who qualify theory progress to TOACS and clinical cases with oral assessment. The Medicine prospectus specifies English for theory and clinical examinations.

Do the practice percentages reproduce official examination weights?

No numerical Medicine topic weighting was verified in the public official material reviewed. The displayed shares count the 40 questions in this limited study set. Use the current CPSP prospectus and trainee requirements to plan complete preparation.

Can these MCQs replace clinical or viva preparation?

No. This is independent English-language MCQ study practice, not an official translation or format simulation. Prepare patient assessment, examination, communication, procedures and oral reasoning separately with supervised clinical practice.

What eligibility and fee should applicants check?

The current major-subject notice requires four completed years of training with rotations and supervisor-approved e-log entries. Medicine progression also involves FCPS-I, IMM and prescribed training requirements. Confirm current research, workshops, workplace assessments and application documents with CPSP. The September 2026 notice for February 2027 lists a standard Pakistan fee of Rs. 15,050 including handling.

Are these official CPSP questions?

These are independently written study questions. CPSP does not provide, sponsor or endorse this resource.