100+ Free WAPCP Part I Practice Questions

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West African Postgraduate College of Pharmacists Primary Examination

Practice Questions100 questions

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: WAPCP Part I Exam

50%

Passing Score

WAPCP Rules

2 Years

Residency Program

Mandatory

$220

Examination Fee

WAPCP Secretariat

Update Lectures

Requirement

50%

Average Pass Rate

College Data

WAPCP Faculties

WAPCP Constitution

The WAPCP Part I exam has a 50% pass rate and requires 50% on each paper to pass. It covers clinical pharmacy, social/administrative pharmacy, and pharmacy management. Eligibility requires a B.Pharm/Pharm.D, passing the Primary exam, completing 2 years of residency, and attending 4 update lectures. The exam fee is $220.

Sample WAPCP Part I Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your WAPCP Part I exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 28-year-old pregnant patient in her second trimester presents with a confirmed diagnosis of uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria. According to the Nigerian National Guidelines for the Treatment of Malaria, which of the following is the preferred first-line treatment?

A.Oral Quinine plus Clindamycin for 7 days

B.Artemether-Lumefantrine (AL) standard course

C.Artesunate-Amodiaquine (ASAQ) standard course

D.Oral Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine (SP) single dose

Explanation: Artemether-Lumefantrine (AL) is the preferred first-line ACT in Nigeria for uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. Standard ACT treatment is recommended once the patient is past the first trimester. Quinine plus Clindamycin is reserved for first-trimester uncomplicated malaria. SP is used for intermittent preventive treatment (IPTp), not active treatment. Artesunate-Amodiaquine is a first-line option for non-pregnant adults but is less preferred in pregnancy due to amodiaquine tolerability issues.

2A 45-year-old HIV-positive patient is diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient is already on a first-line antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen containing Dolutegravir (DTG). What adjustment is required when co-administering Rifampicin and Dolutegravir?

A.No adjustment is necessary as Rifampicin does not affect Dolutegravir levels

B.Increase Dolutegravir dose to 50 mg twice daily (BID)

C.Discontinue Dolutegravir and switch to Efavirenz 600 mg once daily

D.Substitute Rifampicin with Rifabutin at standard dosing without adjusting Dolutegravir

Explanation: Rifampicin is a potent inducer of CYP3A4 and UGT1A1, which significantly decreases Dolutegravir plasma concentrations. To overcome this drug-drug interaction, the dose of Dolutegravir must be increased from 50 mg once daily to 50 mg twice daily (BID) in patients receiving Rifampicin. Switching to Efavirenz is not preferred as Dolutegravir-based regimens are superior. Rifabutin is an alternative but is not widely available in Nigeria's public health sector, and adjusting DTG to twice daily with Rifampicin is the standard guideline.

3A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis experiences tingling, numbness, and burning sensations in their feet. Which drug in the first-line antituberculosis regimen is responsible, and what is the appropriate prevention strategy?

A.Ethambutol; administer Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

B.Isoniazid; administer Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

C.Rifampicin; administer Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

D.Pyrazinamide; administer Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)

Explanation: Isoniazid (INH) inhibits the enzyme pyridoxine dehydrogenase, leading to pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) deficiency, which causes peripheral neuropathy (tingling, numbness, and burning). Co-administration of Pyridoxine 10-25 mg daily is the standard preventive and treatment strategy, especially in high-risk patients such as pregnant women, alcoholics, diabetics, and malnourished individuals. Ethambutol causes optic neuritis, Rifampicin causes body fluid discoloration, and Pyrazinamide causes hyperuricemia and arthralgia.

4A 5-year-old child presents with high fever, vomiting, and chills, and is diagnosed with severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria. According to the National Guidelines for the Treatment of Malaria, what is the preferred initial treatment?

A.Intramuscular Artemether

B.Intravenous Artesunate

C.Intravenous Quinine Infusion

D.Oral Artemether-Lumefantrine

Explanation: Intravenous (or intramuscular) Artesunate is the preferred first-line drug for severe malaria in all age groups, including children and pregnant women, as recommended by both WHO and Nigerian national guidelines. It has been shown to reduce mortality significantly compared to IV Quinine. Oral Artemether-Lumefantrine is used for uncomplicated malaria, but severe malaria requires parenteral treatment. IV Quinine is now a second-line option when artesunate is unavailable.

5A 32-year-old pregnant patient in her third trimester presents to a clinic in Nigeria. She has not received any doses of intermittent preventive treatment for malaria (IPTp). What is the national recommendation for IPTp in this patient?

A.Administer Artesunate-Amodiaquine monthly until delivery

B.Administer Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine (SP) under DOT starting at 16 weeks of gestation or quickening

C.Administer Artemether-Lumefantrine weekly until delivery

D.Administer Chloroquine weekly throughout pregnancy

Explanation: Nigerian national guidelines recommend Sulfadoxine-Pyrimethamine (SP) for intermittent preventive treatment of malaria in pregnancy (IPTp). It is administered as a single dose under Directly Observed Therapy (DOT) at every scheduled ANC visit, starting in the second trimester (from 13-16 weeks or quickening), at least one month apart, up to the time of delivery. ACTs are not used for IPTp prevention. Chloroquine is no longer recommended due to widespread resistance.

6A patient undergoing therapy for tuberculosis complains of progressive visual disturbances, specifically decreased visual acuity and red-green color blindness. Which of the following drugs is the most likely causative agent?

A.Isoniazid

B.Rifampicin

C.Ethambutol

D.Pyrazinamide

Explanation: Ethambutol is well known to cause optic neuritis, which manifests as decreased visual acuity, central scotomas, and loss of red-green color discrimination. This side effect is dose-dependent and typically reversible upon drug discontinuation, but baseline and periodic visual tests are mandatory. Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy, Rifampicin causes orange-colored fluids, and Pyrazinamide causes joint pain/gout.

7A patient recently initiated on anti-tuberculosis therapy is alarmed to find that their urine and tears have turned an orange-red color. What counseling should the clinical pharmacist provide?

A.Advise the patient to stop all medications immediately and visit the emergency department

B.Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect of Rifampicin and therapy must continue

C.Tell the patient to reduce the dose of Isoniazid by half to stop the discoloration

D.Inform the patient that they are developing acute liver failure and need a liver transplant

Explanation: Rifampicin causes a harmless red-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, tears, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. Pharmacists must counsel patients about this expected effect to prevent unnecessary panic and ensure compliance. Stopping therapy or reducing doses of companion drugs like Isoniazid will lead to treatment failure and drug resistance.

8According to the national guidelines for antiretroviral therapy in Nigeria, what is the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents living with HIV?

A.Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Efavirenz (TLE)

B.Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Dolutegravir (TLD)

C.Abacavir + Lamivudine + Dolutegravir

D.Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine

Explanation: Tenofovir/Lamivudine/Dolutegravir (TLD) is the preferred first-line ART regimen in Nigeria. Dolutegravir (DTG) has replaced Efavirenz (EFV) due to its higher genetic barrier to resistance, faster viral load suppression, and better tolerability. Abacavir/Lamivudine/Dolutegravir is an alternative, particularly for patients with renal impairment where Tenofovir is contraindicated. Regimens containing Nevirapine are no longer recommended as first-line options.

9A clinical pharmacist reviews the profile of an HIV patient with a CD4 count of 150 cells/mcL. The pharmacist recommends starting Co-trimoxazole (Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim) prophylaxis. What is the primary clinical objective of this prophylaxis?

A.To treat active pulmonary tuberculosis

B.To prevent Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) and toxoplasmosis

C.To boost CD4 count directly and replace antiretroviral therapy

D.To prevent systemic candidiasis infections

Explanation: In HIV patients with CD4 counts below 200 cells/mcL, Co-trimoxazole prophylaxis is indicated to prevent Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP), a life-threatening opportunistic infection, and toxoplasmosis. It also provides secondary prophylaxis against malaria and certain bacterial infections in endemic areas. It does not treat active TB, boost CD4 counts directly, or prevent fungal infections like candidiasis (which is prevented/treated with fluconazole).

10A 55-year-old black African patient with no comorbidities is diagnosed with Stage 2 essential hypertension. According to standard guidelines for black hypertensive patients, which of the following is the preferred initial monotherapy?

A.ACE Inhibitor (e.g., Lisinopril) or ARB (e.g., Losartan)

B.Calcium Channel Blocker (e.g., Amlodipine) or Thiazide-like Diuretic

C.Beta-Blocker (e.g., Propranolol) or Loop Diuretic

D.Alpha-Blocker (e.g., Doxazosin) or Vasodilator

Explanation: Hypertension guidelines (including ISH, JNC8, and Nigerian hypertension consensus) recommend Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) or Thiazide/Thiazide-like diuretics as the preferred initial drug classes for black patients. Black hypertensive patients typically have low-renin hypertension, making them less responsive to renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) blockers like ACE inhibitors or ARBs as monotherapy. Beta-blockers are not first-line for uncomplicated hypertension.

About the WAPCP Part I Exam

The West African Postgraduate College of Pharmacists (WAPCP) Part I Examination is a professional residency milestone for pharmacists seeking membership status. Practice clinical pharmacy, pharmacotherapeutics, social/administrative pharmacy, and pharmacy management with our mock exam questions.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

50%

Exam Fee

$220 (WAPCP)

WAPCP Part I Exam Content Outline

50%

Clinical Pharmacy & Therapeutics

Cardiovascular, infectious, endocrine, renal, hepatic, pediatric, and geriatric pharmacotherapy.

25%

Social & Administrative Pharmacy

Drug policy, health insurance, pharmacoeconomics, pharmacoepidemiology, and ethics.

25%

Pharmacy Practice & Management

Inventory control, logistics, cold chain management, financial analysis, and personnel.

How to Pass the WAPCP Part I Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 50%
Exam length: 100 questions
Time limit: 3 hours
Exam fee: $220

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

WAPCP Part I Study Tips from Top Performers

1Focus heavily on clinical pharmacotherapy, which constitutes 50% of the exam weighting. Review guidelines for malaria, TB, HIV, and hypertension.

2Thoroughly study pharmacy administration in Nigeria, specifically the Pharmacy Council of Nigeria (PCN) Act 2022 and NAFDAC regulations.

3Understand quantitative inventory management models such as ABC analysis, VED analysis, and Reorder Point calculations.

4Review key pharmacoeconomics concepts including Cost-Effectiveness, Cost-Utility, Cost-Benefit, and Incremental Cost-Effectiveness Ratios (ICER).

5Practice time management with mock exams containing 100 questions within a 3-hour limit.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the passing score for the WAPCP Part I exam?

The passing score for each paper in the WAPCP Part I (Membership) examination is 50%. Candidates must pass all papers, including Paper I (MCQ) and Paper II (Essay/Case studies), to be awarded Membership.

What are the prerequisites to sit for the WAPCP Part I exam?

Candidates must hold a B.Pharm or Pharm.D degree, be licensed registered pharmacists, have successfully passed the WAPCP Primary Fellowship Examination (or obtained an exemption), completed a minimum of two years of residency training, and attended at least four update lectures.

How much does the WAPCP Part I examination cost?

The examination fee for the Part I exam is approximately $220. There may be additional fees for update lectures (around $100) and other training logistics, which are subject to review by the College Council.

What areas of pharmacy are tested on the Part I exam?

The Part I examination evaluates candidates in core faculties: Clinical Pharmacy, Community Pharmacy, Drug Production & Quality Assurance, Public Health Pharmacy, and Social & Administrative Pharmacy. Practice topics include advanced clinical pharmacotherapy, pharmacy legislation (like the PCN Act 2022), health insurance, pharmacoeconomics, inventory control, and supply chain logistics.

How often is the WAPCP Part I exam conducted?

The WAPCP fellowship examinations are typically conducted once a year, usually in the third week of November. Registration is completed online through the WAPCP student portal.