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100+ Free NALA ACP Trial Practice Practice Questions
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2026 Statistics
Key Facts: NALA ACP Trial Practice Exam
$250 / $300
Course Fee (member / non-member)
NALA ACP
~70%
Typical Passing Standard
Set by NALA per course
~20 hours
Web-Based Course Length
NALA ACP
NALA CP
Prerequisite Credential
NALA eligibility
100
Free Practice Questions
OpenExamPrep
Self-paced
Online Format
NALA ACP
The NALA ACP Trial Practice specialty is a self-paced, web-based NALA course (approximately 20 hours) that concludes with an online final assessment; NALA does not publish a fixed question count, and the passing standard is set per course (commonly around 70%). The fee is $250 for members and $300 for non-members. A current NALA Certified Paralegal (CP) credential is the prerequisite. The substantive content centers on U.S. civil litigation: Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (pleadings, motions, Rule 16 case management, discovery), the Federal Rules of Evidence, Rule 45 subpoenas, exhibit and witness management, the trial notebook, voir dire support, and post-trial motions and appeals.
Sample NALA ACP Trial Practice Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your NALA ACP Trial Practice exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A paralegal is reviewing a federal civil complaint drafted by a junior associate. Under Rule 8(a) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, what three elements must a pleading that states a claim for relief contain?
A.A short and plain statement of the grounds for jurisdiction, a short and plain statement of the claim showing the pleader is entitled to relief, and a demand for the relief sought
B.A jury demand, a verification, and a certificate of service
C.A detailed recitation of every fact supporting the claim, citations to controlling authority, and a proposed order
D.An affidavit of merit, a statement of damages exceeding $75,000, and a list of witnesses
Explanation: Rule 8(a) requires a claim for relief to contain (1) a short and plain statement of the grounds for the court's jurisdiction, (2) a short and plain statement of the claim showing the pleader is entitled to relief, and (3) a demand for the relief sought. This is notice pleading, not fact pleading.
2A defendant wants to challenge a complaint on the ground that, even if everything alleged is true, the plaintiff has not stated a legally cognizable claim. Which motion should the paralegal prepare?
A.A Rule 12(b)(6) motion to dismiss for failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
B.A Rule 12(b)(2) motion to dismiss for lack of personal jurisdiction
C.A Rule 56 motion for summary judgment
D.A Rule 12(e) motion for a more definite statement
Explanation: A Rule 12(b)(6) motion tests the legal sufficiency of the complaint, assuming all well-pleaded facts are true. If the allegations, accepted as true, fail to state a plausible claim under Twombly and Iqbal, dismissal is proper.
3After being served with a summons and complaint in federal court, how many days does a defendant who has not waived service generally have to serve a responsive pleading under Rule 12(a)(1)(A)(i)?
A.14 days
B.30 days
C.21 days
D.60 days
Explanation: Under Rule 12(a)(1)(A)(i), a defendant must serve an answer within 21 days after being served with the summons and complaint. A defendant who timely waives service under Rule 4(d) gets 60 days from when the request was sent.
4A paralegal is calendaring deadlines after a complaint was served. Under Rule 16(b), when must the court generally issue a scheduling order?
A.Within 30 days after the complaint is filed regardless of service
B.Only after the close of discovery
C.The earlier of 90 days after any defendant has been served or 60 days after any defendant has appeared, absent good cause for delay
D.Within 120 days after the answer is filed
Explanation: Rule 16(b)(2) requires the judge to issue the scheduling order as soon as practicable, but unless the judge finds good cause for delay, within the earlier of 90 days after any defendant has been served or 60 days after any defendant has appeared. The order limits time to amend pleadings, join parties, complete discovery, and file motions.
5Which of the following is a proper function of a Rule 16 pretrial conference that a paralegal should help the attorney prepare for?
A.Selecting the trial jury and ruling on peremptory challenges
B.Taking the sworn deposition testimony of the parties
C.Simplifying the issues, obtaining stipulations and admissions, and ruling in advance on the admissibility of evidence
D.Entering a final judgment on the merits without trial
Explanation: Rule 16(c) lets the court at a pretrial conference formulate and simplify issues, obtain admissions and stipulations to avoid unnecessary proof, rule in advance on admissibility, and control discovery. The resulting final pretrial order under Rule 16(e) controls the course of the action.
6A plaintiff wishes to amend the complaint to add a new theory. The defendant has already served an answer, and no scheduling deadline has passed. Under Rule 15(a), how may the plaintiff amend?
A.Freely at any time without limit because amendments are always allowed
B.Only by filing an entirely new lawsuit
C.Only with the opposing party's written consent or the court's leave, which the court should freely give when justice so requires
D.Only after the close of discovery
Explanation: Under Rule 15(a)(1), a party may amend once as a matter of course within 21 days after serving, or within 21 days after a responsive pleading or Rule 12 motion. After that period, Rule 15(a)(2) requires the opposing party's written consent or leave of court, which the court should freely give when justice so requires.
7Under Rule 11, by signing a pleading or motion, an attorney certifies all of the following EXCEPT:
A.The paper is not being presented for any improper purpose such as harassment or delay
B.The legal contentions are warranted by existing law or a nonfrivolous argument for changing it
C.The factual contentions have evidentiary support or will likely have support after further investigation
D.The client will prevail on the merits at trial
Explanation: Rule 11(b) requires that the paper not be presented for an improper purpose, that legal contentions be warranted, and that factual contentions have or will likely have evidentiary support. It does not certify that the client will win; lawyers cannot guarantee outcomes.
8A motion for summary judgment under Rule 56 should be granted when:
A.The complaint fails to allege jurisdiction
B.The jury is unable to reach a verdict
C.The opposing party fails to appear at the pretrial conference
D.There is no genuine dispute as to any material fact and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law
Explanation: Rule 56(a) provides that the court shall grant summary judgment if the movant shows there is no genuine dispute as to any material fact and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. Celotex and Anderson v. Liberty Lobby set the burden-shifting and 'genuine issue' standards.
9A paralegal maintains the master case calendar. Which task is the MOST important reason to track every court-ordered deadline meticulously?
A.To bill more hours to the client file
B.Because missing a deadline can result in waived claims, sanctions, or dismissal that harm the client
C.Because the court clerk requires paralegals to file weekly status reports
D.Because deadlines determine the order of witnesses at trial
Explanation: Docket and deadline control is a core litigation-paralegal function. A missed statute of limitations, discovery cutoff, or motion deadline can waive rights, trigger sanctions, or cause dismissal, which is among the most common malpractice exposures. Accurate calendaring protects the client and the firm.
10Under Rule 26(a)(1), parties must make initial disclosures without awaiting a discovery request. Which of the following must be disclosed?
A.The name and contact information of each individual likely to have discoverable information the disclosing party may use to support its claims or defenses
B.Every document the party might conceivably use, including privileged work product
C.A complete list of the opposing party's trial strategy
D.Only the identity of expert witnesses
Explanation: Rule 26(a)(1)(A)(i) requires disclosure of the name, and if known the address and telephone number, of each individual likely to have discoverable information the party may use to support its claims or defenses, plus categories of documents, a damages computation, and insurance agreements.
About the NALA ACP Trial Practice Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for NALA Advanced Certified Paralegal - Trial Practice is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.