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Sample NACCM CMC Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your NACCM CMC exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A care manager receives a referral for a new client. What is the FIRST step in the care management process before a comprehensive assessment is conducted?
A.Coordinating community service referrals
B.Developing measurable care plan goals
C.Screening the client to determine appropriateness for and eligibility for care management services
D.Scheduling a 90-day reassessment
Explanation: Screening (intake) precedes the comprehensive assessment. It establishes whether care management is appropriate, whether the client is eligible, and what the presenting concerns are. Goal-setting, coordination, and reassessment all occur later in the process.
2Which assessment is described as comprehensive because it evaluates the medical, psychological, functional, financial, safety, legal, and social dimensions of a client's situation?
A.A biopsychosocial and environmental assessment
B.A Mini-Mental State Examination
C.A fall-risk screening
D.A medication reconciliation
Explanation: A biopsychosocial and environmental assessment is the holistic, multidomain evaluation that anchors care management. It deliberately spans medical, psychological, functional, financial, safety, legal, and social factors plus the client's formal and informal supports. The other options are narrow, single-domain tools.
3During the first home visit, the care manager explains her role, the scope of services, and any fees, then asks the client to sign an agreement. This practice primarily ensures what?
A.A discharge summary
B.A completed genogram
C.Eligibility for Medicaid
D.Informed consent
Explanation: Reviewing the care manager's role, the scope of services, costs, and the client's rights and responsibilities, then obtaining the client's agreement, is how informed consent is established. It is an ethical and procedural requirement at the start of services. The other items are separate documents or determinations.
4A care manager writes a care plan goal as 'Client will walk to the mailbox and back with a walker three times per week within 30 days.' This goal is well-written primarily because it is:
A.Focused on the caregiver rather than the client
B.Specific, measurable, and time-limited
C.Open-ended to allow flexibility
D.Based solely on the physician's preference
Explanation: Effective care plan goals are specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART). This goal names the action, the support, the frequency, and a deadline, making progress easy to monitor. Vague or provider-driven goals are harder to evaluate.
5In developing a plan of care, the care manager should set priorities primarily based on what?
A.The order in which problems appear in the chart
B.The client's most urgent safety needs and the client's own goals and preferences
C.The services that are least expensive to arrange
D.The family's convenience
Explanation: Prioritization in care planning balances clinical urgency, especially safety risks, with the client's self-determined goals and preferences. The care plan is developed collaboratively with the client/responsible party. Chart order, cost alone, or family convenience are not the governing criteria.
6After services begin, a care manager periodically revisits the client to check progress toward goals and adjust the plan. This ongoing activity is BEST described as:
A.Termination of services
B.Initial screening
C.Informed consent
D.Monitoring and reassessment
Explanation: Monitoring and periodic reassessment are the phase in which the care manager tracks service delivery, evaluates progress toward goals, and modifies the plan as needs change. This is distinct from intake screening, consent, or termination, which occur at other points.
7A care manager determines that a client lacks the cognitive capacity to participate fully in care planning. According to sound practice, what should the care manager do?
A.Identify and involve an authorized alternative decision maker such as a health care agent or guardian
B.Make all decisions unilaterally without consulting anyone
C.Discontinue the assessment immediately
D.Wait until the client regains capacity before doing anything
Explanation: When a client has limited or absent decisional capacity, the care manager identifies an authorized surrogate, such as a health care proxy, durable power of attorney agent, or court-appointed guardian, to participate in planning. Acting unilaterally or abandoning the process would violate the client's rights and standards of practice.
8To validate and expand assessment information about a client's medications and diagnoses, the care manager should MOST appropriately:
A.Search social media for the client's health information
B.Rely only on what the client recalls during the interview
C.Contact relevant collateral sources such as the client's physician and other providers, with consent
D.Assume the previous care manager's notes are still accurate
Explanation: Collateral contact with physicians, pharmacists, and other providers, made with the client's consent, validates and enriches self-reported data. Self-report alone may be incomplete, especially with cognitive impairment, and unauthorized sources violate privacy. Old notes may be outdated.
9Which standardized tool is MOST appropriate for assessing a client's ability to perform instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)?
A.The Glasgow Coma Scale
B.The Katz Index of Independence in ADLs
C.The Braden Scale
D.The Lawton-Brody IADL Scale
Explanation: The Lawton-Brody Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale measures complex tasks such as managing finances, medications, shopping, and using the telephone. The Katz Index measures basic ADLs; the Braden Scale predicts pressure ulcer risk; the Glasgow Coma Scale measures level of consciousness.
10A client can bathe, dress, and toilet independently but can no longer manage her checkbook, prepare meals, or take the bus. Her limitations are primarily in which area?
A.Basic activities of daily living (ADLs)
B.Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
C.Sensory functioning
D.Continence
Explanation: Managing finances, preparing meals, and using transportation are instrumental activities of daily living, the higher-order tasks needed to live independently in the community. Bathing, dressing, and toileting are basic ADLs, which this client still performs. IADL loss often appears before ADL loss.
About the NACCM CMC Practice Questions
Verified exam format metadata for Care Manager Certified is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.