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Free Practice Questions for Namibia Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination

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Key Facts: Namibia Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination Exam

11

compulsory examinable subjects, plus optional conveyancing

Candidate Legal Practitioners Regulations, regulation 7

50%

pass mark per subject, with a 40% end-of-year sub-minimum

Candidate Legal Practitioners Regulations, regulation 19(1)

40% / 60%

continuous assessment and end-of-year examination weighting

Candidate Legal Practitioners Regulations, regulation 19(2)

26 Oct to 20 Nov 2026

provisional LPQE 1 examination window

UNAM 2026 School of Law Prospectus

The LPQE is Namibia's statutory qualifying examination for admission as a legal practitioner. The Justice Training Centre (UNAM) conducts it under the control of the Board for Legal Education after a post-graduate course of at least nine months. Each of 11 compulsory subjects is passed separately at 50% (40% continuous assessment, 60% end-of-year written examination, 40% sub-minimum). This free, independent bank offers English-language multiple-choice practice on those subjects; it is a study aid, not a simulation of the written papers.

Sample Namibia Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Namibia Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Rule 17(2) of the Rules of the High Court of Namibia (2014) places primary responsibility for the control and management of cases filed at the court on whom?
A.The court, with the parties and their practitioners obliged to cooperate with it
B.The parties' legal practitioners, who set the pace of each case until they certify that it is ready for trial
C.The registrar, who allocates hearing dates, monitors compliance and enforces time limits without needing any judicial involvement
D.The Law Society of Namibia, which monitors whether practitioners comply with their agreed case plans
Explanation: Rule 17(2) states that control and management of cases is primarily the court's responsibility and that the parties and their legal practitioners must cooperate with the court to achieve the overriding objective in rule 1(3): resolving the real issues justly, speedily, efficiently and cost-effectively. This is the core of judicial case management, under which a managing judge sets the timetable through case plan and case management orders.
2Under Rule 7 of the 2014 Rules of the High Court of Namibia, how does a plaintiff institute an action?
A.By a combined summons, with a sheriff's part and a particulars-of-claim part
B.By issuing a simple summons and then delivering a declaration only after the defendant has given notice of intention to defend the action
C.By filing a notice of motion supported by a founding affidavit that sets out the facts of the cause of action
D.By lodging a letter of demand with the registrar, which the managing judge then converts into a summons
Explanation: Rule 7(1) provides that an action is instituted by suing out a combined summons. Under rule 7(4) it has two parts: the first, addressed to the sheriff, follows Form 1; the second contains the particulars of claim, which must state the material facts relied on, the cause of action and the relief claimed (rule 7(8)). The 2014 Rules contain no simple-summons-and-declaration procedure, which is a common confusion with South African practice.
3A defendant considers the plaintiff's particulars of claim vague and embarrassing. Under Rule 57 of the High Court Rules, what must the defendant do before delivering an exception on that ground?
A.Apply under rule 58 to strike out the offending paragraphs of the particulars, and wait for that ruling before taking any exception
B.Within 10 days of the period allowed, give the plaintiff notice and an opportunity to remove the cause of complaint
C.Deliver a plea over on the merits so that the exception can be heard together with the trial
D.Request further particulars for trial, and deliver an exception only if the plaintiff refuses to reply within the period allowed
Explanation: Rule 57(2) requires a party who intends to except that a pleading is vague and embarrassing to deliver, within 10 days of the period allowed for doing so, a notice affording the opponent an opportunity to remove the cause of complaint. Under rule 57(3) the exception itself is delivered within 10 days of the reply to that notice, or of the date when the reply was due. The managing judge then gives directions for hearing the exception (rule 57(4)).
4Under Rule 73(4) of the High Court Rules, what must an applicant set out explicitly in the affidavit supporting an urgent application?
A.That the respondent was given at least 24 hours' written notice and refused to agree to an earlier hearing date
B.That the Law Society of Namibia has certified that the matter qualifies for the duty judge's roll
C.That a case planning conference has already been held and failed, and that the managing judge has authorised an urgent set-down
D.The grounds of urgency, and why redress in due course would not be substantial
Explanation: Rule 73(4) requires the applicant to set out explicitly (a) the circumstances which he or she avers render the matter urgent and (b) the reasons why he or she could not be afforded substantial redress at a hearing in due course. Urgent applications are heard by the duty judge at 09h00 on a court day unless a legal practitioner certifies that the matter must be heard at another time (rule 73(1)). The court may dismiss for lack of urgency and make a special costs order (rule 73(2)).
5Under Rule 60(1) of the High Court Rules, when may a plaintiff apply for summary judgment?
A.After notice of intention to defend, for claims on a liquid document, for a liquidated amount, for specified movables or for ejectment
B.Before the combined summons is served, where the plaintiff fears that the defendant will dissipate assets needed to satisfy any eventual judgment
C.After pleadings have closed and discovery is complete, where the plaintiff's evidence on a claim for unliquidated damages is entirely uncontested
D.Whenever the defendant fails to deliver a notice of intention to defend within the time stated in the combined summons
Explanation: Rule 60(1) allows a summary judgment application once the defendant has delivered notice of intention to defend, for claims on a liquid document, for a liquidated amount in money, for delivery of specified movable property, or for ejectment. Under rule 60(2) the supporting affidavit must verify the cause of action and the amount and state that there is no bona fide defence and that the notice to defend was delivered solely for delay. The managing judge gives directions for the hearing (rule 60(4)).
6Without reasonable explanation, a defendant's legal practitioner fails to attend a case planning conference and then ignores the resulting case plan order. Which response is open to the managing judge under Rule 53 of the High Court Rules?
A.Referring the practitioner to the Law Society's disciplinary committee, which is the only sanction the rule provides
B.Transferring the action to the magistrates' court with jurisdiction because the defendant has abandoned its defence
C.Ordering the defendant's arrest for contempt of court, with the action stayed until the defendant has purged the contempt in person
D.Striking out the defence, barring the defendant from opposing the claim, entering final judgment or making an adverse costs order
Explanation: Rule 53(1) covers failures without reasonable explanation to attend case planning, case management, status or pre-trial conferences, or to comply with case plan and other orders. Rule 53(2) then lets the court refuse to allow the non-compliant party to support or oppose claims or defences, strike out pleadings, dismiss a claim or enter final judgment, or order the party or its legal practitioner to pay the costs caused. Separately, rule 54(3) bars a party that fails to deliver a pleading within the time in the case plan order.
7A magistrate's court judgment for a sum of money has remained unsatisfied for 10 days. Under the Magistrates' Courts Act 32 of 1944 as it applies in Namibia, which procedure lets the judgment creditor have the debtor's means examined?
A.Applying for a warrant committing the debtor to civil imprisonment until the judgment debt and the costs of execution are paid in full
B.Applying to the High Court under Rule 73 for an urgent order freezing all of the debtor's bank accounts
C.Delivering a notice of bar requiring the debtor to file a sworn list of assets within five court days
D.A section 65A notice calling the debtor to a financial inquiry in chambers
Explanation: Section 65A(1) allows the judgment creditor, once a money judgment has stayed unsatisfied for 10 days, to issue a notice calling on the debtor to appear before the court in chambers. The court then inquires into the debtor's financial position and makes a just and equitable order, with the debtor giving evidence under oath (s 65D). In Julius v Commanding Officer, Windhoek Prison 1996 NR 390 (HC), the provisions allowing imprisonment for civil debt were declared unconstitutional, and Act 1 of 1999 amended the Act accordingly.
8A company with no apparent assets sues your client in the High Court of Namibia. On what statutory basis can your client ask the court to order the company to furnish security for costs?
A.Rule 59(8) of the High Court Rules, which requires every corporate plaintiff to give security unless the managing judge directs otherwise
B.The Insolvency Act 24 of 1936, which entitles a defendant to security from any plaintiff that has committed an act of insolvency
C.Section 11 of the Companies Act 28 of 2004, where credible testimony suggests the company could not pay a successful defendant's costs
D.Section 26 of the Legal Practitioners Act 15 of 1995, which requires the plaintiff's practitioner to hold the security in a trust account
Explanation: Section 11 of the Companies Act 28 of 2004 allows the court, at any stage, to require a company or other body corporate that is plaintiff or applicant to give sufficient security, and to stay proceedings until it does. This applies where credible testimony gives reason to believe it will be unable to pay the defendant's costs if the defence succeeds. Rule 59 supplies the procedure: a notice setting out the grounds and amount, the registrar fixing the amount, and an application to the managing judge if security is refused.
9Under section 11 of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969, which applies in Namibia, what is the prescriptive period for an ordinary debt arising from a contract of sale, where no other Act provides otherwise?
A.Six years
B.Three years
C.Fifteen years
D.Thirty years
Explanation: Section 11(d) sets three years for any debt not covered by the longer periods, save where an Act of Parliament provides otherwise. The longer periods are 30 years for mortgage bond debts, judgment debts, tax debts and certain State mining royalties (s 11(a)), 15 years for certain State loans and State land sales or leases (s 11(b)), and 6 years for bills of exchange, other negotiable instruments and notarial contracts (s 11(c)). Prescription starts to run when the debt is due (s 12(1)).
10Under section 15 of the Prescription Act 68 of 1969, which step interrupts the running of prescription on a debt?
A.Sending the debtor a registered letter of demand that sets a final date for payment
B.The debtor's written denial that any amount is owing under the contract
C.Opening a litigation file and diarising the claim at the creditor's law firm before the debt prescribes
D.Service on the debtor of process claiming payment of the debt
Explanation: Section 15(1) provides for judicial interruption by service on the debtor of any process claiming payment. Under s 15(6), 'process' includes a summons, notice of motion, rule nisi, counterclaim or third-party notice. Unless the debtor acknowledges liability, the interruption lapses if the creditor does not successfully prosecute the claim to final judgment, or abandons the judgment (s 15(2)). Separately, s 14 provides that an express or tacit acknowledgement of liability by the debtor interrupts prescription.

About the Namibia Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination Exam

The Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination (LPQE) is the statutory examination that law graduates must pass to be admitted as legal practitioners by the High Court of Namibia. Under section 16 of the Legal Practitioners Act 15 of 1995, the Justice Training Centre at the University of Namibia conducts it under the control of the Board for Legal Education, which moderates the examination and issues certificates to successful candidates. This independent practice bank by OpenExamPrep offers 100 English-language multiple-choice questions across the 11 compulsory subjects listed in the Candidate Legal Practitioners Regulations, written from Namibian statutes, court rules and Law Society rules.

Exam sponsor: Justice Training Centre (University of Namibia), under the control of the Board for Legal Education. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

The LPQE follows a post-graduate course of at least nine months at the Justice Training Centre (UNAM), three months of which are compulsory lectures, while the candidate is attached to a principal for at least 60 hours a month. Each of the 11 compulsory subjects is examined by written papers: continuous assessment (written assignments 20% and a mid-year examination 20%) counts 40%, and the end-of-year examination counts 60%. Conveyancing is an optional introductory course that is not examined. The examination is held twice a year.

Time Limit

Not published: neither the regulations nor the 2026 JTC calendar states paper durations. The 2026 LPQE 1 examinations are scheduled for 26 October to 20 November 2026, and LPQE 2 ran from 2 to 25 March 2026.

Passing Score

50% in each subject (40% continuous assessment and 60% end-of-year examination), with a 40% sub-minimum in the end-of-year examination; 75% or more earns a distinction.

Exam / Certification Fees

Under Annexure 6 to the Candidate Legal Practitioners Regulations (as substituted by GN 8 of 2011): N$700 enrolment, N$700 tuition per subject, and an examination fee per subject of N$600 at a first sitting or N$650 at a later sitting. Confirm current amounts with the JTC.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

~12% of this bank

Civil Practice and Procedure in the Supreme Court, High Court and Lower Courts, Legal Costs and Prescription

2014 High Court Rules and judicial case management, magistrates' courts execution, security for costs, and the Prescription Act 68 of 1969.

~11% of this bank

Criminal Practice and Procedure in the Namibian Courts

Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 as applied in Namibia: arrest, detention, bail, plea procedure, discharge, sentencing and review.

~10% of this bank

Professional Ethics and Conduct, and Techniques in Litigation, including Salient Rules of Evidence

Legal Practitioners Act 15 of 1995 admission rules, Law Society professional standards, duties to clients and the court, witness examination and evidence.

~9% of this bank

Practice of Constitutional Law, Human Rights and Practical Workings of the Organs of State and Public Bodies

Namibian Constitution: fundamental rights, Article 18 administrative justice, Article 22 limitations, the courts and the Ombudsman.

~9% of this bank

Wills and Estates

Wills Act 7 of 1953, Administration of Estates Act 66 of 1965, collation and the Intestate Succession Ordinance 12 of 1946.

~9% of this bank

Practice and Procedure relating to the Law of Insolvency and Trusts

Insolvency Act 24 of 1936 (sequestration, impeachable dispositions, ranking of claims) and the Trust Administration Act 11 of 2023.

~9% of this bank

Practice and Procedure relating to Commercial Transactions and Drafting of Contracts

Contract formation and breach, sale-of-land formalities, and the Companies Act 28 of 2004.

~9% of this bank

Practice Management and Administration, and Practical Bookkeeping and Accounts

Trust accounts under section 26 of the Legal Practitioners Act, fidelity fund certificates, and Law Society accounting rules.

~8% of this bank

Motor Accident Law and Motor Vehicle Accident Claims

Motor Vehicle Accident Fund Act 10 of 2007: entitlement, benefits, limits, exclusions, prescription and legal proceedings.

~8% of this bank

Practice of Labour Law and Alternative Dispute Resolution

Labour Act 11 of 2007: annual leave, fair dismissal, retrenchment, conciliation and arbitration, appeals and strikes.

~6% of this bank

Legal Drafting

Particulars of claim, founding affidavits, attestation of affidavits, notices of appeal and commercial contract clauses.

Preparing for the Namibia Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 50% in each subject (40% continuous assessment and 60% end-of-year examination), with a 40% sub-minimum in the end-of-year examination; 75% or more earns a distinction.
  • Assessment: The LPQE follows a post-graduate course of at least nine months at the Justice Training Centre (UNAM), three months of which are compulsory lectures, while the candidate is attached to a principal for at least 60 hours a month. Each of the 11 compulsory subjects is examined by written papers: continuous assessment (written assignments 20% and a mid-year examination 20%) counts 40%, and the end-of-year examination counts 60%. Conveyancing is an optional introductory course that is not examined. The examination is held twice a year.
  • Time limit: Not published: neither the regulations nor the 2026 JTC calendar states paper durations. The 2026 LPQE 1 examinations are scheduled for 26 October to 20 November 2026, and LPQE 2 ran from 2 to 25 March 2026.
  • Exam / certification fees: Under Annexure 6 to the Candidate Legal Practitioners Regulations (as substituted by GN 8 of 2011): N$700 enrolment, N$700 tuition per subject, and an examination fee per subject of N$600 at a first sitting or N$650 at a later sitting. Confirm current amounts with the JTC. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

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Namibia Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination: Suggested Study Strategy

1Study Namibian sources rather than South African ones: Namibia's 2014 High Court Rules have no simple summons, its Criminal Procedure Act has no section 105A plea agreements, and its Wills Act has no section 4A court discretion.
2Learn the judicial case management rules that recur in practice: rule 32(9)-(10) amicable resolution before interlocutory proceedings, rule 53 sanctions, rule 57 exceptions, rule 66 opposition and rule 73 urgent applications.
3For bookkeeping, master section 26 of the Legal Practitioners Act and Law Society rules 17 and 18: monthly trust creditor lists, no trust shortfall, and five-year record retention.
4Because every subject is passed separately with a 40% end-of-year sub-minimum, spread revision across all 11 subjects instead of relying on your strongest areas.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Legal Practitioners' Qualifying Examination (LPQE) in Namibia?

The LPQE is the examination defined in the Legal Practitioners Act 15 of 1995 that candidate legal practitioners must pass to be admitted. Under section 16, the Justice Training Centre (JTC) at the University of Namibia conducts it under the control of the Board for Legal Education. A graduate holding the Board's certificates of practical legal training and of passing the LPQE is duly qualified under section 5 and may apply to the High Court for admission; admitted practitioners automatically become members of the Law Society of Namibia.

How is the LPQE assessed and what is the pass mark?

Each of the 11 compulsory subjects is assessed separately. Written assignments (20%) and a mid-year examination (20%) make up continuous assessment, and the end-of-year written examination counts 60%. A candidate passes a subject with 50% overall and at least 40% in the end-of-year examination, and 75% or more earns a distinction. To enter, a candidate needs at least 80% class attendance in each subject and must have completed the assignments and the mid-year examination.

When is the LPQE held in 2026?

The regulations require the LPQE to be held twice in each calendar year. The University of Namibia's 2026 School of Law Prospectus schedules the LPQE 1 examinations for 26 October to 20 November 2026; LPQE 2 ran from 2 to 25 March 2026. The JTC describes these dates as provisional and subject to change.

Can I retake failed LPQE subjects?

Yes. At a later sitting a candidate writes only the subjects not yet passed. A candidate who has taken the examination and retaken it four times without completing it may not retake it within five years of the last attempt unless the Board for Legal Education consents.

How does this practice bank relate to the official LPQE?

The official LPQE uses written papers in English, plus continuous assessment, across 11 subjects. This OpenExamPrep bank is an independent English-language multiple-choice study aid built from Namibian statutes, the 2014 High Court Rules and the Law Society rules. It does not simulate the written papers and does not replace drafting practice, coursework or practical attachment to a principal.