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Exam Review

Key Facts: CMG Gastroenterología Exam

6 Feb 2027

Next examination date (CEAT Tlatelolco)

CMG convocatoria

3 Aug–26 Oct 2026

Registration window for the February 2027 exam

CMG convocatoria

MXN 5,000

Examination fee

CMG convocatoria

5 Sep 2026

Previous session

CMG convocatoria

5 years

Certification validity

CONACEM

The CMG certification exam is the CONACEM-recognized gastroenterology board exam in Mexico: an in-person written exam at CEAT Tlatelolco, next held on 6 February 2027, covering luminal, liver and pancreatobiliary medicine.

Sample CMG Gastroenterología Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the CMG Gastroenterología exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 44-year-old man presents with persistent heartburn and acid regurgitation. Upper endoscopy demonstrates mucosal breaks in the distal esophagus extending continuously between the tops of three mucosal folds, involving approximately 55% of the esophageal circumference. According to the Los Angeles Classification of erosive esophagitis, which grade should be assigned?
A.Grade C
B.Grade A
C.Grade B
D.Grade D
Explanation: According to the Los Angeles Classification of erosive esophagitis, Grade C is defined as one or more mucosal breaks that are continuous between the tops of two or more mucosal folds, involving less than 75% of the esophageal circumference. Grade A involves breaks <= 5 mm not extending between folds, Grade B involves breaks > 5 mm not extending between folds, and Grade D involves breaks extending across at least 75% of the circumference.
2A 38-year-old woman has refractory retrosternal burning despite twice-daily omeprazole therapy. Upper endoscopy reveals no mucosal breaks or Barrett mucosa. Ambulatory 24-hour pH-impedance monitoring off proton pump inhibitors is scheduled. According to the Lyon 2.0 consensus criteria, which physiologic metric provides conclusive objective evidence of pathologic gastroesophageal reflux?
A.Total number of reflux episodes between 40 and 60 in 24 hours
B.Acid exposure time (AET) greater than 6.0%
C.DeMeester composite score between 10.5 and 14.7
D.A normal post-reflux swallow-induced peristaltic wave (PSPW) index
Explanation: According to the Lyon 2.0 consensus, an acid exposure time (AET) > 6.0% on ambulatory pH or pH-impedance monitoring off therapy is conclusive objective evidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease. An AET < 4.0% is considered normal, while values between 4.0% and 6.0% are inconclusive and need adjunctive evidence (reflux episode count, mean nocturnal baseline impedance, histology). A normal PSPW index indicates preserved chemical clearance.
3A 56-year-old man undergoes surveillance endoscopy for Barrett esophagus. High-definition endoscopy reveals a circumferential segment of columnar-lined esophagus measuring 3 cm with a maximal longitudinal extent of 5 cm (Prague C3M5). According to international consensus and the Seattle biopsy protocol, how should surveillance mucosal biopsies be obtained?
A.Random single biopsies taken every 5 cm along the mucosal segment
B.Single-quadrant biopsies taken only at the squamocolumnar junction
C.Four-quadrant biopsies taken every 1 to 2 cm along the entire columnar segment
D.Targeted biopsies restricted exclusively to visible mucosal ulcerations
Explanation: The Seattle biopsy protocol mandates 4-quadrant biopsies taken every 1 to 2 cm throughout the entire length of the columnar-lined esophagus, in addition to targeted biopsies of any visible mucosal irregularities, nodules, or ulcerations. This systematic sampling minimizes sampling error for occult dysplasia.
4A 62-year-old man with a 4 cm segment of Barrett esophagus undergoes surveillance endoscopy. Biopsies confirm high-grade dysplasia (HGD) verified by an expert gastrointestinal pathologist. Careful inspection with high-definition chromoendoscopy shows flat mucosa without discrete nodules or depressed lesions. Which therapeutic intervention is currently recommended as first-line management?
A.Immediate total transthoracic esophagectomy with gastric pull-up
B.Surveillance endoscopy with repeat Seattle biopsies repeated in 12 months
C.Empiric escalation to triple-dose proton pump inhibitor monotherapy
D.Endoscopic eradication therapy using radiofrequency ablation (RFA)
Explanation: For flat Barrett esophagus with confirmed high-grade dysplasia (HGD) without visible discrete lesions, endoscopic eradication therapy—most commonly radiofrequency ablation (RFA)—is the preferred first-line treatment. It achieves complete eradication of dysplasia and intestinal metaplasia in over 85-90% of cases while avoiding the morbidity and mortality of surgical esophagectomy.
5A 34-year-old woman presents with progressive solid and liquid dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, and an 8 kg weight loss. High-resolution manometry (HRM) demonstrates an elevated median integrated relaxation pressure (IRP) of 28 mmHg (upper limit of normal 15 mmHg), 100% failed peristalsis, and panesophageal pressurization in 40% of test swallows. According to the Chicago Classification v4.0, which diagnosis is established?
A.Type I classic achalasia
B.Type II achalasia with panesophageal pressurization
C.Type III spastic achalasia
D.Esophagogastric junction outflow obstruction
Explanation: According to the Chicago Classification v4.0, Type II achalasia is defined by an abnormal median IRP (> 15 mmHg with a Sierra-style catheter) with 100% failed peristalsis and panesophageal pressurization present in at least 20% of test swallows. Type II is the most common subtype and has the highest response rate to all treatment modalities.
6A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with Type III (spastic) achalasia characterized by an elevated IRP and premature, spastic contractions involving the distal 10 cm of the tubular esophagus on high-resolution manometry. Which intervention provides the highest clinical success rate specifically for this achalasia subtype?
A.Serial botulinum toxin injection into the lower esophageal sphincter
B.Standard 30 mm graded pneumatic balloon dilation
C.Peroral endoscopic myotomy (POEM)
D.Laparoscopic Heller myotomy limited strictly to 2 cm above the cardia
Explanation: Type III (spastic) achalasia responds substantially better to peroral endoscopic myotomy (POEM) than to pneumatic dilation or standard surgical Heller myotomy. POEM allows the operator to tailor the length of the esophageal myotomy proximally into the esophageal body to divide the entire spastic contracting segment.
7A 26-year-old atopic man presents to the emergency department with acute meat impaction requiring urgent endoscopic bolus extraction. Endoscopy demonstrates circular mucosal rings (trachealization), linear furrows, and white exudative plaques. Esophageal mucosal biopsies are obtained. Which histological finding confirms the diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE)?
A.Presence of 1 to 5 eosinophils per high-power field confined to the basal layer
B.Mucosal infiltration by neutrophils and plasma cells with absent eosinophils
C.Intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells positive for Alcian blue
D.Fifteen or more eosinophils per high-power field (>= 15 eos/HPF)
Explanation: The consensus diagnostic threshold for eosinophilic esophagitis (EoE) is the presence of 15 or more intraepithelial eosinophils per high-power field (>= 15 eos/HPF, ~60 eos/mm2) in esophageal mucosal biopsies, in the setting of symptoms of esophageal dysfunction and after excluding non-EoE causes of esophageal eosinophilia.
8A 52-year-old man develops excruciating lower chest and epigastric pain following repeated episodes of forceful retching and vomiting after an alcoholic binge. Physical examination reveals tachypnea, diaphoresis, and subcutaneous crepitus palpable along the suprasternal notch. Which clinical entity and classic triad are demonstrated?
A.Boerhaave syndrome manifesting Mackler triad
B.Mallory-Weiss syndrome manifesting Charcot triad
C.Acute peptic ulcer perforation manifesting Reynolds pentad
D.Zenker diverticulum perforation manifesting Saint triad
Explanation: Boerhaave syndrome is spontaneous transmural barogenic rupture of the esophagus, most commonly occurring in the left posterolateral wall of the distal esophagus. The classic Mackler triad consists of vomiting, lower thoracic/chest pain, and subcutaneous cervical or mediastinal emphysema.
9A 71-year-old man presents with progressive cervical dysphagia, foul-smelling halitosis, nocturnal regurgitation of undigested food, and recurrent aspiration pneumonia. A barium swallow reveals a 4 cm posterior saccular outpouching arising just proximal to the cricopharyngeal muscle. Through which anatomical area of potential weakness does this diverticulum herniate?
A.Laimer triangle between circular fibers and longitudinal fibers of the esophagus
B.Killian triangle between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles
C.Killian-Jamieson space inferior to the cricopharyngeus muscle
D.Triangle of Petit in the lumbar musculature
Explanation: Zenker diverticulum is a pulsion false diverticulum that herniates posteriorly through Killian triangle, an area of anatomical muscular weakness located between the oblique fibers of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor (thyropharyngeus) and the transverse fibers of the cricopharyngeus muscle, caused by uncoordinated cricopharyngeal spasm.
10A 45-year-old woman in Mexico City is diagnosed with an active Helicobacter pylori-associated duodenal ulcer. Assume that local clarithromycin resistance exceeds 15% and metronidazole resistance is high, and that susceptibility testing is not available. According to the Maastricht VI/Florence consensus, which regimen is the preferred first-line empiric eradication therapy?
A.Standard triple therapy: PPI, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 7 days
B.Sequential therapy: PPI plus amoxicillin for 5 days, followed by PPI, clarithromycin, and tinidazole for 5 days
C.Bismuth quadruple therapy: PPI, bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, and tetracycline for 14 days
D.Dual therapy: high-dose amoxicillin plus vonoprazan for 5 days
Explanation: Maastricht VI recommends against empiric clarithromycin-containing triple therapy where clarithromycin resistance exceeds 15% or is unknown. In that setting, bismuth quadruple therapy (PPI, bismuth, metronidazole and tetracycline) for 14 days is the preferred empiric first-line regimen. It stays effective despite in vitro metronidazole resistance, because resistance is partly overcome by the higher metronidazole dose and 14-day duration. Resistance rates vary between regions and studies, so local data should guide the choice.

About the CMG Gastroenterología Exam

Independent CMG gastroenterology certification study practice by OpenExamPrep. The Consejo Mexicano de Gastroenterología, A.C., recognized by CONACEM, certifies gastroenterologists through an in-person written exam at CEAT Tlatelolco, Mexico City, with registration through SIGME. After the 5 September 2026 session, the next exam is scheduled for 6 February 2027 (registration 3 August–26 October 2026, fee MXN 5,000). The official exam is in Spanish; this bank is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation built from current international guidelines. It is not an official translation or simulation.

Exam sponsor: Consejo Mexicano de Gastroenterología, A.C. (CMG). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

In-person written multiple-choice examination at CEAT (UNAM) Tlatelolco in Mexico City. The council does not publish the item count, duration or a percentage pass mark. This bank groups practice into esophagogastric disease and GI bleeding, hepatology, intestinal disease and motility, pancreatobiliary disease, and GI oncology and nutrition (an OpenExamPrep study grouping, not an official blueprint).

Time Limit

not-published

Passing Score

not-published

Exam / Certification Fees

MXN 5,000

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

Core section (weight not published)

Enfermedades Esofagogástricas y Hemorragia Digestiva

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (Montreal criteria, Lyon 2.0 consensus, ambulatory pH-impedance monitoring), Barrett esophagus surveillance and ablation criteria, motor disorders including achalasia (Chicago v4.0 manometry classification, Heller myotomy, POEM, pneumatic dilation), peptic ulcer disease and Helicobacter pylori quadruple bismuth eradication regimens, and acute upper GI bleeding (Forrest classification, endoscopic hemostatic modalities, IV PPI infusion, erythromycin prokinetics)

Core section (weight not published)

Hepatología y Cirrosis Hepática

Viral hepatitis B and C serologies and direct-acting antiviral (DAA) therapy, autoimmune hepatitis (IAHG scoring, steroids/azathioprine), primary biliary cholangitis (anti-mitochondrial antibodies, UDCA, second-line PPAR agonists), MASLD/MASH non-invasive fibrosis staging (FIB-4, transient elastography), portal hypertension and variceal hemorrhage prophylaxis (non-selective beta-blockers, band ligation), ascites evaluation (SAAG >= 1.1 g/dL), spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (PMN >= 250/mm3, cefotaxime, IV albumin), hepatorenal syndrome (terlipressin/albumin criteria), hepatic encephalopathy (lactulose, rifaximin), and hepatocellular carcinoma surveillance and staging (LI-RADS, Milan criteria)

Core section (weight not published)

Enfermedades Intestinales, Malabsorción y Motilidad

Inflammatory bowel disease differentiation (ulcerative colitis vs Crohn disease, Montreal phenotypic classification, endoscopic Mayo score, SES-CD, biologic therapies including anti-TNF, anti-integrin alpha4beta7 vedolizumab, and IL-12/23 inhibitors), celiac disease serological and histological diagnosis (anti-tTG IgA, Marsh criteria), microscopic colitis (collagenous and lymphocytic), irritable bowel syndrome (Rome IV diagnostic criteria, secretagogues, antispasmodics), and Clostridioides difficile infection management (oral vancomycin, fidaxomicin, recurrent disease strategies)

Core section (weight not published)

Patología Pancreatobiliar

Acute pancreatitis diagnosis and classification (revised Atlanta classification, mild vs moderately severe vs severe, BISAP scoring, fluid resuscitation, enteral nutrition, and infected necrosis step-up catheter drainage approach), chronic pancreatitis diagnosis (pancreatic exocrine insufficiency, fecal elastase-1, enzyme replacement therapy), choledocholithiasis and acute ascending cholangitis (Tokyo Guidelines 2018 criteria, urgent ERCP decompression), autoimmune pancreatitis (type 1 IgG4-related vs type 2, HISORt criteria), and pancreatic cystic lesions (branch-duct IPMN, mucinous cystic neoplasms, Fukuoka/Sendai surveillance criteria)

Core section (weight not published)

Oncología Digestiva y Nutrición Clínica

Gastric adenocarcinoma risk factors (H. pylori, atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, Operative Link for Gastritis Assessment [OLGA/OLGIM]), esophageal carcinoma staging, colorectal cancer screening and surveillance post-polypectomy guidelines (USMSTF/ESGE risk stratification), gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST, c-KIT mutation, imatinib), neuroendocrine tumors (chromogranin A, octreoscan/Ga-68 DOTATATE), short bowel syndrome pathophysiology and GLP-2 analog therapy (teduglutide), and total enteral/parenteral nutrition complications (refeeding syndrome)

Preparing for the CMG Gastroenterología Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: not-published
  • Assessment: In-person written multiple-choice examination at CEAT (UNAM) Tlatelolco in Mexico City. The council does not publish the item count, duration or a percentage pass mark. This bank groups practice into esophagogastric disease and GI bleeding, hepatology, intestinal disease and motility, pancreatobiliary disease, and GI oncology and nutrition (an OpenExamPrep study grouping, not an official blueprint).
  • Time limit: not-published
  • Exam / certification fees: MXN 5,000 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CMG Gastroenterología: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master the Forrest classification and endoscopic treatment algorithms for bleeding peptic ulcers, including high-dose IV proton-pump inhibitor protocols and prokinetic pre-endoscopy preparation.
2Review the Chicago Classification v4.0 for esophageal motility disorders, noting the high-resolution manometry parameters (integrated relaxation pressure [IRP]) differentiating achalasia subtypes I, II, and III.
3Know the revised Atlanta classification for acute pancreatitis, including fluid collections (acute peripancreatic fluid collection vs pseudocyst, acute necrotic collection vs walled-off necrosis) and the minimally invasive step-up approach for infected necrosis.
4Memorize the diagnostic cutoffs and management algorithms for cirrhosis complications: SAAG >= 1.1 g/dL for portal hypertension, ascitic fluid absolute PMN count >= 250/mm3 for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (with empiric ceftriaxone/cefotaxime and albumin infusions), and terlipressin plus albumin for hepatorenal syndrome-AKI.
5Understand the Milan criteria for liver transplantation in hepatocellular carcinoma (single nodule <= 5 cm or up to 3 nodules <= 3 cm each without vascular invasion or extrahepatic spread) and the LI-RADS imaging classification.
6Review post-polypectomy surveillance guidelines (USMSTF/ESGE) based on adenoma number, size (>= 10 mm), and histological features (tubulovillous/villous, high-grade dysplasia, or sessile serrated lesions).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the CMG gastroenterology certification exam?

The Examen de Certificación en Gastroenterología is administered by the Consejo Mexicano de Gastroenterología, A.C. (CMG), the council recognized by CONACEM for the specialty. Certification is valid for 5 years and is renewed through recertification.

When and where is the next CMG certification examination?

The 2026 session was held in person on Saturday 5 September 2026 at CEAT Tlatelolco in Mexico City. The next session is scheduled for 6 February 2027 at CEAT, with registration through SIGME from 3 August to 26 October 2026.

What is the registration fee and passing standard for the CMG exam?

The examination fee is MXN 5,000. The CMG does not publish a fixed percentage pass mark, the item count or the exam duration in advance.

What curriculum and clinical topics are evaluated on the exam?

The CMG does not publish a weighted blueprint. Practice here covers esophagogastric disease (GERD, achalasia, Barrett esophagus, ulcer disease, GI bleeding), hepatology and cirrhosis complications, intestinal disorders (IBD, celiac disease, IBS, C. difficile), pancreatobiliary disease, and GI oncology and clinical nutrition, based on current international guidelines.

Why is this OpenExamPrep question bank provided in English?

The official CMG examination is administered in Spanish. This bank is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation for reviewing diagnostic criteria and guideline-based management. It is not an official translation or simulation.