PracticeVideosBlogFlashcardsEspañol
All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for MCM MRE

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
113+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Exam Review

Key Facts: MCM MRE Exam

150

Single-response multiple-choice questions in the one-paper MRE, each with a stem and 4 options

Medical Council of Mauritius MRE Information Bulletin

3 hours

Duration of the single MRE paper

Medical Council of Mauritius MRE communiqué, March 2026

75 / 150

Minimum marks to pass the MRE (50%), with no negative marking

Medical Council of Mauritius MRE communiqué, March 2026

Rs 13,500

MRE examination fee payable to the Medical Council of Mauritius; not refundable

Medical Council of Mauritius MRE communiqué, March 2026

18 months

Minimum pre-registration training required before sitting the MRE

Medical Council Act, section 22(1)(c), and MCM MRE communiqué

13

Clinical subjects listed in the MCM's published MRE syllabus; no subject weights are published

Medical Council of Mauritius MRE syllabus

To register as a general practitioner in Mauritius, most medical graduates must pass the Medical Council of Mauritius's Medical Registration Examination (MRE): one 3-hour paper of 150 single-response multiple-choice questions in English, with a pass mark of 75/150 and no negative marking. Candidates need a recognised medical degree and at least 18 months of pre-registration training, and the fee is Rs 13,500. This free, independent practice bank covers all 13 subjects in the MCM's published syllabus.

Sample MCM MRE Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the MCM MRE exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 113+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 60-year-old man presents with 2 hours of crushing central chest pain. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and right-sided lead V4R shows 1.5 mm ST elevation. His blood pressure is 84/56 mmHg, heart rate is 58 bpm, the jugular venous pressure is raised, and both lung fields are clear. While emergency reperfusion is being arranged, which additional step is most appropriate for his hypotension?
A.Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate to relieve ischemic chest pain
B.Intravenous furosemide to reduce the raised jugular venous pressure
C.Cautious intravenous fluid boluses (for example 250 mL of crystalloid) with hemodynamic monitoring
D.Oral metoprolol to reduce myocardial oxygen demand
Explanation: Inferior ST elevation with ST elevation in V4R, hypotension, a raised JVP, and clear lungs indicates right ventricular infarction, usually from proximal right coronary artery occlusion. The infarcted right ventricle is preload-dependent, so hypotension is treated with cautious intravenous fluid loading while primary PCI or fibrinolysis restores flow; inotropes are added if fluids fail.
2A 65-year-old woman with a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy presents with acute shortness of breath, orthopnea, and bilateral ankle edema. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 102 bpm, respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Auscultation reveals bilateral basal crackles extending halfway up both lung fields. Which medication is contraindicated during this acute decompensated state?
A.Intravenous furosemide
B.Intravenous nitroglycerin
C.Supplemental oxygen via face mask
D.Initiation of oral bisoprolol
Explanation: Beta-blockers such as bisoprolol have proven mortality benefits in chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, but initiating or up-titrating them is contraindicated during acute decompensated heart failure. Their negative inotropic effect can further depress cardiac output and worsen pulmonary edema and hemodynamic instability until the patient is completely euvolemic.
3A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents for a routine check-up. An ECG confirms newly discovered, asymptomatic atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 115 bpm. His blood pressure is 135/82 mmHg. Echocardiography shows normal left ventricular ejection fraction (55%) and left atrial enlargement. What is the most appropriate long-term stroke prevention strategy based on his CHA2DS2-VASc score?
A.No antithrombotic therapy required
B.Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban
C.Aspirin 81 mg daily monotherapy
D.Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel
Explanation: This patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3 (1 point for age 65–74, 1 point for hypertension, and 1 point for diabetes mellitus); the sex-neutral CHA2DS2-VA score used in the 2024 ESC guideline gives the same total. Guidelines recommend oral anticoagulation for men with a score of 2 or higher to prevent thromboembolic stroke. Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, or dabigatran are preferred over vitamin K antagonists because of lower intracranial hemorrhage rates and predictable pharmacokinetics.
4A 34-year-old man is evaluated for treatment-resistant hypertension. Despite adherence to amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, his blood pressure remains 165/102 mmHg. Laboratory evaluation shows serum sodium of 144 mmol/L, serum potassium of 2.9 mmol/L, and bicarbonate of 30 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic screening test?
A.24-hour urinary free cortisol excretion
B.Renal artery Doppler ultrasound
C.Plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR)
D.Plasma free metanephrines
Explanation: The clinical triad of early-onset resistant hypertension, unprovoked hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis strongly suggests primary aldosteronism (Conn's syndrome). The recommended initial screening test is the morning plasma aldosterone concentration to plasma renin activity (or direct renin concentration) ratio (ARR). An elevated aldosterone accompanied by suppressed renin confirms autonomous mineralocorticoid production.
5A 22-year-old university student known to have bronchial asthma presents to the casualty department with severe dyspnea, wheezing, and inability to speak in complete sentences. Her respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min, pulse is 120 bpm, and peak expiratory flow (PEF) is 40% of her predicted value. Along with controlled supplemental oxygen, which immediate pharmacological combination represents the standard first-line management?
A.Intravenous aminophylline infusion plus inhaled fluticasone
B.Subcutaneous epinephrine injection plus oral montelukast
C.Intravenous magnesium sulfate infusion alone
D.Nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium bromide plus systemic corticosteroids
Explanation: Severe acute asthma exacerbation requires immediate administration of high-dose inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonists (salbutamol) combined with an anticholinergic agent (ipratropium bromide) via nebulizer or pressurized metered-dose inhaler with a spacer, alongside early administration of systemic corticosteroids (oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone) to reduce airway inflammation and prevent relapse.
6A 68-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of productive cough, fever, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He is alert and oriented. Temperature is 38.8 °C, blood pressure 105/65 mmHg, heart rate 94 bpm, and respiratory rate 32 breaths/min. Chest radiography shows right lower lobe consolidation, and serum urea is 8.2 mmol/L. What is his CURB-65 score, and what does it indicate?
A.Score 1; low risk, usually suitable for home treatment
B.Score 2; intermediate risk, consider hospital-based care
C.Score 3; high risk, manage in hospital as severe pneumonia
D.Score 4; high risk, with his blood pressure counted as a criterion
Explanation: CURB-65 gives 1 point each for new Confusion, Urea >7 mmol/L, Respiratory rate >=30/min, low Blood pressure (systolic <90 or diastolic <=60 mmHg), and age >=65. He scores for urea (8.2 mmol/L), respiratory rate (32/min), and age (68), but not for confusion or blood pressure (105/65 mmHg), giving 3. A score of 3 to 5 indicates high-risk (severe) pneumonia needing hospital management, with assessment for critical care, especially at 4 to 5.
7A 64-year-old chronic smoker with severe COPD is admitted with increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and sputum purulence. On 4 L/min nasal oxygen, he becomes progressively somnolent. Arterial blood gas (ABG) shows pH 7.24, PaCO2 68 mmHg, PaO2 88 mmHg, and HCO3- 29 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his respiratory status?
A.Titrate oxygen to achieve SaO2 88%–92% and initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV)
B.Increase oxygen flow to 10 L/min via a non-rebreather mask
C.Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate to correct acidosis
D.Perform immediate elective tracheostomy
Explanation: Excessive uncontrolled supplemental oxygen in acute COPD exacerbations blunts hypoxic drive, worsens ventilation-perfusion mismatch (Haldane effect and loss of hypoxic vasoconstriction), and causes acute hypercapnic respiratory failure and acidosis. Controlled oxygen targeted to 88%–92% via a Venturi mask combined with early Non-Invasive Ventilation (NIV/BiPAP) is the evidence-based standard to reduce mortality and avoid invasive mechanical ventilation.
8A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset right pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea 10 days after undergoing an uncomplicated laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Her heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg. Her right calf is warm and swollen. D-dimer is elevated at 1,800 ng/mL. What is the definitive imaging investigation of choice to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Transthoracic echocardiogram
B.Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) lung scan
C.Standard portable chest radiograph
D.Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
Explanation: The patient has a high pre-test probability of acute pulmonary embolism: clinical signs of DVT (3 points), heart rate above 100 bpm (1.5 points), and surgery within the previous 4 weeks (1.5 points) give a two-level Wells score of 6, where PE is 'likely' above 4. Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the imaging investigation of choice because it directly shows filling defects in the pulmonary arteries with high sensitivity and specificity.
9A 42-year-old man undergoes upper gastrointestinal endoscopy for chronic burning epigastric pain that improves with meals. Endoscopy reveals a 1.5 cm active duodenal ulcer, and a rapid urease test is positive for Helicobacter pylori. What is the recommended first-line pharmacological regimen for eradication?
A.Proton pump inhibitor monotherapy for 6 months
B.Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) + amoxicillin + clarithromycin for 14 days
C.Amoxicillin and metronidazole for 5 days without acid suppression
D.Oral sucralfate suspension and antacids on demand
Explanation: Standard first-line triple therapy for H. pylori eradication in regions with low clarithromycin resistance consists of a high-dose Proton Pump Inhibitor (e.g., omeprazole 20 mg twice daily) combined with amoxicillin (1,000 mg twice daily) and clarithromycin (500 mg twice daily) for 14 days. Bismuth quadruple therapy is preferred in areas with high clarithromycin resistance.
10A 52-year-old man with alcoholic liver cirrhosis presents with acute hematemesis and melena. On admission, his blood pressure is 88/55 mmHg, pulse is 118 bpm, and he appears pale and diaphoretic. While fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloids is initiated and blood products are cross-matched, which pharmacological agent should be administered immediately to reduce portal venous pressure?
A.Oral propranolol
B.Intravenous furosemide
C.Intravenous terlipressin
D.Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin
Explanation: In suspected acute variceal hemorrhage, vasoactive agents such as intravenous terlipressin (or somatostatin/octreotide) should be started immediately prior to diagnostic endoscopy. Terlipressin acts on vascular V1 receptors causing splanchnic vasoconstriction, which reduces mesenteric arterial inflow, decreases portal venous pressure, and significantly reduces mortality and transfusion requirements.

About the MCM MRE Exam

The Medical Registration Examination (MRE) is the examination the Medical Council of Mauritius sets under section 22(1)(ca) of the Medical Council Act to determine whether a person seeking registration as a general practitioner 'possesses adequate professional medical knowledge'. Candidates need a recognised diploma in medicine and at least 18 months of pre-registration training. The MRE is one 3-hour paper of 150 single-response MCQs in English, passed with 75 of 150 marks, covering 13 clinical subjects from medicine and surgery to ophthalmology, ENT and dermatology. Doctors with at least 3 years' registered GP practice abroad are exempt. OpenExamPrep offers free, independent practice questions on these subjects; they are not official MCM papers.

Exam sponsor: Medical Council of Mauritius (MCM); exam centres and admit cards handled by the Mauritius Examinations Syndicate (MES). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

One 3-hour paper of 150 single-response MCQs conducted in English. The MCM information bulletin describes the MRE as a computer-based test held twice yearly; recent sittings were on 27 August 2025 and 28 March 2026, with admit cards issued by the Mauritius Examinations Syndicate. The published syllabus lists 13 clinical subjects: Medicine; Tuberculosis and Respiratory Diseases; General Surgery; Anaesthesia; Orthopaedics; Radio-diagnosis; Radiotherapy; Obstetrics and Gynaecology; Paediatrics; Psychiatry; Dermatology and Sexually Transmitted Diseases; Ophthalmology; and Otorhinolaryngology. No subject weights are published.

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

75 / 150 marks (50%)

Exam / Certification Fees

Rs 13,500

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

Not published

Medicine

Clinical methods, infections, haematology, and cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, neurological, renal and endocrine disorders, plus emergency medicine and geriatrics.

Not published

Tuberculosis and Respiratory Diseases

Common chest conditions, with emphasis on the management and prevention of tuberculosis and the national control programme.

Not published

General Surgery

Haemorrhage and shock, fluid balance, burns and wounds, vascular disease, hernia, breast, thyroid, head injury, urology and gastrointestinal and hepatobiliary surgery.

Not published

Anaesthesia

Airway management, pre-operative assessment, general and regional anaesthesia, resuscitation, monitoring, intensive care, shock, transfusion and poisoning.

Not published

Orthopaedics

Fractures and joint injuries, spinal and vascular injuries, cold orthopaedics, bone and joint tuberculosis, and rehabilitation.

Not published

Radio-diagnosis

Imaging of the chest, heart, gastrointestinal tract, skeleton, central nervous system and urinary tract, and obstetric and gynaecological imaging.

Not published

Radiotherapy

Principles of radiotherapy, chemotherapy and nuclear medicine, early diagnosis of cancer, and radiation reactions.

Not published

Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Antenatal care, normal and abnormal labour, obstetric emergencies, puerperium, family planning, infertility, genital infections and gynaecological tumours.

Not published

Paediatrics

Neonatology, growth and development, nutrition, childhood infections, genetics, paediatric emergencies and organ-system disorders in children.

Not published

Psychiatry

Mental status examination, psychoses, mood and anxiety disorders, dementia, substance misuse, psychiatric emergencies and child and adolescent psychiatry.

Not published

Dermatology and Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Infective, allergic, papulosquamous and bullous skin disorders, pigmentation and hair disorders, leprosy and sexually transmitted diseases.

Not published

Ophthalmology

Diseases of the anterior and posterior segments, glaucoma, squint, refractive errors, eye injuries and community ophthalmology.

Not published

Otorhinolaryngology

Diseases of the ear, nose and paranasal sinuses, nasopharynx, trachea and oesophagus.

Preparing for the MCM MRE Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75 / 150 marks (50%)
  • Assessment: One 3-hour paper of 150 single-response MCQs conducted in English. The MCM information bulletin describes the MRE as a computer-based test held twice yearly; recent sittings were on 27 August 2025 and 28 March 2026, with admit cards issued by the Mauritius Examinations Syndicate. The published syllabus lists 13 clinical subjects: Medicine; Tuberculosis and Respiratory Diseases; General Surgery; Anaesthesia; Orthopaedics; Radio-diagnosis; Radiotherapy; Obstetrics and Gynaecology; Paediatrics; Psychiatry; Dermatology and Sexually Transmitted Diseases; Ophthalmology; and Otorhinolaryngology. No subject weights are published.
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam / certification fees: Rs 13,500 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 113 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

MCM MRE: Suggested Study Strategy

1Work through every subject in the MCM's syllabus, not just medicine and surgery: the official sample questions include ophthalmology, ENT and dermatology items alongside medicine, paediatrics and obstetrics.
2Practise first-line emergency management, such as ATLS primary survey, tension pneumothorax, sepsis, status epilepticus, eclampsia, postpartum haemorrhage and neonatal resuscitation.
3Learn the characteristic presentations that single-best-answer questions rely on, such as fundus findings, tuning-fork test patterns, classic skin lesions and developmental milestones.
4Review current treatment guidelines for common infections, including tuberculosis, malaria, meningitis, syphilis and leprosy, and note when guidance has changed.
5There is no negative marking, so answer every question; use the official sample questions to get used to the 4-option single-response style.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Medical Registration Examination (MRE) in Mauritius?

The MRE is the examination the Medical Council of Mauritius holds under section 22(1)(ca) of the Medical Council Act before registering a person as a general practitioner. It tests whether the candidate has adequate professional medical knowledge, and passing it lets eligible candidates apply for GP registration. The MCM notes that sitting or passing the MRE does not by itself confer a right to registration.

What is the format and pass mark of the MRE?

The MRE is one 3-hour paper of 150 single-response multiple-choice questions, each with a stem and 4 options, conducted in English. Candidates pass with at least 75 of 150 marks (50%), and there is no negative marking. The MCM information bulletin describes it as a computer-based test.

How much does the MRE cost?

The examination fee is Rs 13,500, paid to the Medical Council of Mauritius; the March 2026 communiqué asked for the exact amount in cash. Fees are not refunded or carried forward, including when an application is rejected or the candidate is absent.

Who is eligible, and who is exempt?

Candidates need a 'diploma in medicine' (such as MBBS) or equivalent from a recognised medical institution listed under the Medical Council Act, plus at least 18 months of pre-registration training in Mauritius or at a teaching hospital abroad. Doctors registered as GPs abroad who practised as GPs there for at least 3 years, and those registered as pre-registration trainees before 31 December 2013, are exempt.

Which subjects does the MRE syllabus cover?

The MCM's published syllabus lists 13 clinical subjects: Medicine; Tuberculosis and Respiratory Diseases; General Surgery; Anaesthesia; Orthopaedics; Radio-diagnosis; Radiotherapy; Obstetrics and Gynaecology; Paediatrics; Psychiatry; Dermatology and Sexually Transmitted Diseases; Ophthalmology; and Otorhinolaryngology. The MCM does not publish how many questions come from each subject.

How often is the MRE held, and can I retake it?

The MCM information bulletin says the MRE is held twice yearly; recent sittings were on 27 August 2025 and 28 March 2026. There is no restriction on the number of attempts, and there is no re-evaluation or re-totalling of results.

Is this practice bank affiliated with the Medical Council of Mauritius?

No. OpenExamPrep provides free, independent practice questions for study and self-assessment. They are not official MCM questions and are not endorsed by the Medical Council of Mauritius or the Mauritius Examinations Syndicate. For official sample questions, see the MCM's MRE sample papers.