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Free Practice Questions for Sri Lanka Foreign Service Exam

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Key Facts: Sri Lanka Foreign Service Exam Exam

7 Papers

Written examination papers, with the MCQ paper sat first as a screening paper

SLFS recruitment notification gazetted 04.09.2026

700 Marks

Total written marks across the seven papers

SLFS recruitment notification gazetted 04.09.2026

150 Marks

MCQ paper: two sections of 50 questions (Intelligence Test; General Knowledge and Current Affairs)

SLFS recruitment notification gazetted 04.09.2026

300 Marks

Aggregate cut-off for interview, which shall not be lowered

SLFS recruitment notification gazetted 04.09.2026

100 Marks

Interview for eligibility assessment, added to written marks for merit order

SLFS recruitment notification gazetted 04.09.2026

Rs. 1,200

Official examination fee for the 2026 cycle

Department of Examinations, Sri Lanka

100 MCQs

Independent Study Practice Bank

OpenExamPrep

Conducted by the Commissioner General of Examinations, the SLFS Grade III open competitive examination runs over seven written papers carrying 700 marks. Every candidate sits the 150-mark MCQ paper on the Intelligence Test and General Knowledge and Current Affairs first, and only those scoring 75 or more go on to the six descriptive papers. Minimums apply to every paper, the aggregate cut-off is never below 300 marks, and a 100-mark eligibility-assessment interview decides the final merit order. This independent 100-question practice bank by OpenExamPrep is an English-language study aid for those subject areas; the six descriptive papers still require written practice in your chosen medium.

Sample Sri Lanka Foreign Service Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Sri Lanka Foreign Service Exam exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under Article 51 of the Charter of the United Nations, which of the following conditions is required for a Member State to exercise its inherent right of individual or collective self-defense?
A.Prior written authorization must be granted by the United Nations General Assembly.
B.An armed attack must occur against the Member State, and the measures taken must be immediately reported to the Security Council.
C.A formal declaration of war must be lodged with the International Court of Justice.
D.The Secretary-General must dispatch a civilian fact-finding observer mission to verify border violations.
Explanation: Article 51 of the UN Charter affirms that nothing in the Charter shall impair the inherent right of individual or collective self-defense if an armed attack occurs against a Member of the United Nations, until the Security Council has taken measures necessary to maintain international peace and security. Measures taken by Members in the exercise of this right must be immediately reported to the Security Council and do not affect its authority under the Charter.
2According to Article 22 of the 1961 Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (VCDR), what is the legal extent of the inviolability of diplomatic mission premises?
A.Receiving state authorities may enter the mission without consent whenever they suspect financial tax crimes.
B.Mission premises are extraterritorial territory of the sending state where receiving state domestic law ceases to exist.
C.Receiving state agents may not enter the premises except with the consent of the head of the mission, and the receiving state has a special duty to protect the premises.
D.Inviolability applies exclusively during official working hours and lapses during public holidays or declared civil unrest.
Explanation: Article 22(1) of the VCDR establishes that the premises of the mission shall be inviolable and agents of the receiving state may not enter them except with the consent of the head of the mission. Furthermore, Article 22(2) imposes a special duty upon the receiving state to take all appropriate steps to protect the premises against any intrusion or damage and to prevent any disturbance of the peace of the mission. The archaic concept of 'extraterritoriality' has long been replaced by the functional necessity theory.
3At the 5th Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) Summit held in Colombo in August 1976 under the chairmanship of Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike, which major geopolitical initiative was strongly championed by Sri Lanka?
A.The establishment of a South Asian Nuclear Strike Force.
B.The implementation of the Declaration of the Indian Ocean as a Zone of Peace (IOPZ) and the New International Economic Order (NIEO).
C.The immediate dissolution of all regional trading blocs across Africa and Asia.
D.The mandatory stationing of non-aligned naval flotillas in the Persian Gulf.
Explanation: The 1976 Colombo NAM Summit marked a zenith in Sri Lanka's multilateral diplomacy. Under Sirimavo Bandaranaike's leadership, Sri Lanka strongly advocated for the full realization of the 1971 UN Declaration of the Indian Ocean as a Zone of Peace (Resolution 2832) to exclude great-power military rivalry, while aligning with the Global South to demand structural reform of global trade and finance through the New International Economic Order (NIEO).
4In the United Nations Security Council, how is a non-procedural (substantive) resolution adopted under Article 27(3) of the UN Charter, and how is an abstention by a permanent member treated in established practice?
A.It requires 9 affirmative votes including the concurring votes of the permanent members, and voluntary abstention by a permanent member does NOT constitute a veto.
B.It requires a unanimous 15-member affirmative vote, meaning an abstention automatically vetoes the draft resolution.
C.It requires 10 affirmative votes, and an abstention is counted as a negative vote.
D.It requires 7 affirmative votes, with the Secretary-General casting the deciding ballot in case of a tie.
Explanation: Under Article 27(3) of the UN Charter, decisions on non-procedural matters require nine affirmative votes, including the concurring votes of the permanent members (P5). However, established and uninterrupted jurisprudence dating back to the early Cold War (and reaffirmed by the ICJ in the 1971 Namibia Advisory Opinion) dictates that voluntary abstention or absence by a permanent member does not prevent the adoption of a resolution and does not constitute a veto.
5What is the primary procedural mechanism established by United Nations General Assembly Resolution 377A (V), commonly known as the 'Uniting for Peace' resolution (1950)?
A.It allows the International Court of Justice to issue binding criminal arrest warrants against sitting Heads of State.
B.It enables the General Assembly to consider a threat to peace and recommend collective measures, including the use of armed force, if the Security Council fails to act due to a lack of unanimity among its permanent members.
C.It transfers all budgeting authority for peacekeeping operations exclusively to the President of the Security Council.
D.It authorizes regional defense pacts like NATO to automatically enforce UN sanctions without reporting back to the UN.
Explanation: Adopted in November 1950 during the Korean War crisis, UNGA Resolution 377A (V) establishes that if the Security Council, because of lack of unanimity among its permanent members, fails to exercise its primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security, the General Assembly shall immediately consider the matter in an Emergency Special Session and make appropriate recommendations to Members for collective measures, including the use of armed force when necessary.
6Under Article 9 of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961), what right does a receiving state possess when declaring a member of a diplomatic mission 'persona non grata'?
A.It may only do so after securing an advisory opinion from the International Court of Justice.
B.It may declare a diplomat persona non grata at any time without having to explain or justify its decision.
C.It must submit a detailed sworn affidavit of espionage to the United Nations Security Council within 48 hours.
D.It can only take this step if the sending state consents in writing to the expulsion.
Explanation: Article 9(1) of the VCDR explicitly stipulates that the receiving state may at any time and without having to explain its decision notify the sending state that the head of the mission or any member of the diplomatic staff is 'persona non grata' or that any other member of the staff is not acceptable. The sending state must then either recall the person or terminate their functions with the mission.
7The Peace of Westphalia (1648), which concluded the Thirty Years' War in Europe, is widely regarded in international relations as the historical foundation of which core concept?
A.The creation of the first international court of human rights.
B.The Westphalian system of sovereign statehood, legal equality of states, and non-intervention in internal affairs.
C.The mandatory establishment of democratic governance for all sovereign monarchies.
D.The formation of the Bretton Woods monetary system of fixed exchange rates.
Explanation: The Treaties of Münster and Osnabrück (1648), collectively termed the Peace of Westphalia, established the foundational principles of modern international relations: state sovereignty, the legal equality of sovereign states (regardless of size or military power), and the doctrine of non-interference in the internal affairs of another sovereign entity (cuius regio, eius religio).
8Under Article 31 of the 1961 Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, a diplomatic agent enjoys absolute immunity from the criminal jurisdiction of the receiving state. However, from which of the following civil actions is immunity NOT granted?
A.Any lawsuit arising from traffic collisions caused while driving an official embassy vehicle.
B.An action relating to private immovable property situated in the receiving state, unless held on behalf of the sending state for mission purposes.
C.A commercial breach of contract dispute involving the official procurement of mission computer hardware.
D.A labor dispute regarding the dismissal of a local national employed as an administrative clerk at the embassy.
Explanation: Article 31(1) of the VCDR provides that a diplomatic agent enjoys immunity from the civil and administrative jurisdiction of the receiving state except in three specific instances: (a) a real action relating to private immovable property situated in the territory of the receiving state, unless held on behalf of the sending state for the purposes of the mission; (b) an action relating to succession in which the agent is involved as executor, administrator, heir or legatee as a private person; and (c) an action relating to any professional or commercial activity exercised by the agent outside his official functions.
9Under the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT, 1968), which of the following accurately describes the legal classification of 'Nuclear-Weapon States' (NWS) and the core bargain codified across its three pillars?
A.Any state testing a nuclear device prior to January 1, 1998 is recognized as an NWS with perpetual authorization to retain arsenals without disarmament obligations.
B.NWS status is restricted to states that manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon prior to January 1, 1967 (US, USSR/Russia, UK, France, China); in return for non-nuclear states foreswearing nuclear weapons, NWS commit to pursue good-faith disarmament (Article VI) and facilitate peaceful nuclear technology sharing (Article IV).
C.The NPT recognizes nine official Nuclear-Weapon States, including India, Pakistan, Israel, and North Korea, with equal voting weight at Review Conferences.
D.Non-nuclear weapon states are prohibited from operating any civil nuclear power reactors without the physical presence of IAEA operational engineers.
Explanation: Article IX(3) of the NPT strictly defines a Nuclear-Weapon State as one which has manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to January 1, 1967 (the P5: United States, Soviet Union/Russia, United Kingdom, France, and China). The grand bargain of the treaty balances non-proliferation by non-nuclear weapon states, access to peaceful nuclear energy under IAEA safeguards (Pillar II, Article IV), and the legal obligation of nuclear powers to pursue negotiations in good faith on effective measures relating to nuclear disarmament (Pillar III, Article VI).
10The historic 1955 Asian-African Conference in Bandung, Indonesia, which laid the normative foundation for the Non-Aligned Movement, was convened by five sponsoring nations known as the 'Colombo Powers'. Which countries comprised the Colombo Powers?
A.Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, Pakistan, Burma (Myanmar), and Indonesia.
B.Ceylon (Sri Lanka), China, Japan, Egypt, and Yugoslavia.
C.India, Egypt, Ghana, Yugoslavia, and Indonesia.
D.Ceylon (Sri Lanka), Malaysia, Singapore, Thailand, and the Philippines.
Explanation: The Colombo Powers were the prime ministers of Ceylon (Sir John Kotelawala), India (Jawaharlal Nehru), Pakistan (Muhammad Ali Bogra), Burma (U Nu), and Indonesia (Ali Sastroamidjojo), who met in Colombo in April-May 1954. During this conference, they resolved to convene the broader Asian-African Conference, which successfully took place in Bandung in April 1955, adopting the Ten Bandung Principles.

About the Sri Lanka Foreign Service Exam Exam

The Open Competitive Examination for Recruitment to Grade III of the Sri Lanka Foreign Service (SLFS) is Sri Lanka's most prestigious public service entrance examination for aspiring career diplomats. Administered by the Department of Examinations on behalf of the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Foreign Employment and Tourism and the Public Service Commission under the Sri Lanka Foreign Service Minute of 06.12.2016 and the recruitment notification gazetted on 04.09.2026, this rigorous examination tests candidates across political world affairs, international trade, diplomatic history, international law, bilateral and multilateral diplomacy, language proficiency, and analytical intelligence. Appointees represent the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka in diplomatic missions, consulates general, and international organizations worldwide.

Exam sponsor: Conducted by the Department of Examinations on behalf of the Ministry of Foreign Affairs.. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Seven written papers totalling 700 marks: 1) General Paper (100 marks, 3 hours); 2) World Affairs I (100 marks, 3 hours); 3) World Affairs II (100 marks, 3 hours); 4) Essay (100 marks, 3 hours); 5) Précis (50 marks, 30 minutes); 6) MCQ Paper — Intelligence Test and General Knowledge and Current Affairs (150 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes); and 7) Language Proficiency (100 marks, 3 hours). All candidates sit the MCQ paper first and only those obtaining its minimum of 75 marks may sit the remaining six papers. Candidates who sit all seven papers, reach the minimum in each and meet the Secretary's aggregate cut-off — which shall not be less than 300 marks — are called in merit order, up to five times the number of vacancies, for an interview for eligibility assessment carrying 100 marks. Appointment is on the aggregate of written and interview marks.

Time Limit

18 hours across seven written papers.

Passing Score

At least 40 marks in each 100-mark paper, 75 on the 150-mark MCQ paper and 25 on the 50-mark Précis paper, plus an aggregate not below 300 marks; the 100-mark eligibility-assessment interview is then added to determine merit order.

Exam / Certification Fees

Rs. 1,200.00 for the 2026 cycle.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

25%

Political World Affairs & International Relations

Multilateral diplomacy, United Nations Charter system, Security Council veto powers and peace enforcement, regional security organizations, Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961), geopolitical history, and the Non-Aligned Movement.

20%

Economic World Affairs & Global Trade

International trade architecture, WTO multilateral agreements (GATT, GATS, SPS, TBT, TFA), Bretton Woods institutions (IMF and World Bank), balance of payments mechanisms, sovereign debt restructuring, and commercial diplomacy.

20%

Sri Lanka Foreign Policy & Regional Cooperation

Constitutional and historical foundations of Sri Lanka's foreign policy, Indian Ocean maritime security and sea lanes, SAARC, BIMSTEC, IORA, key historical diplomatic milestones, and bilateral engagements with major global partners.

15%

International Law & Conventions

United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS maritime zones, EEZ, continental shelf), Geneva Conventions and international humanitarian law, core human rights instruments, Vienna Convention on Consular Relations (1963), and treaty ratification procedures.

20%

Diplomatic Communication & Analytical Reasoning

Official diplomatic correspondence formats (note verbale, demarche, aide-mémoire, non-paper), state protocol, diplomatic precedence and immunity administration, consular crisis management, and strategic negotiation reasoning.

Preparing for the Sri Lanka Foreign Service Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: At least 40 marks in each 100-mark paper, 75 on the 150-mark MCQ paper and 25 on the 50-mark Précis paper, plus an aggregate not below 300 marks; the 100-mark eligibility-assessment interview is then added to determine merit order.
  • Assessment: Seven written papers totalling 700 marks: 1) General Paper (100 marks, 3 hours); 2) World Affairs I (100 marks, 3 hours); 3) World Affairs II (100 marks, 3 hours); 4) Essay (100 marks, 3 hours); 5) Précis (50 marks, 30 minutes); 6) MCQ Paper — Intelligence Test and General Knowledge and Current Affairs (150 marks, 2 hours 30 minutes); and 7) Language Proficiency (100 marks, 3 hours). All candidates sit the MCQ paper first and only those obtaining its minimum of 75 marks may sit the remaining six papers. Candidates who sit all seven papers, reach the minimum in each and meet the Secretary's aggregate cut-off — which shall not be less than 300 marks — are called in merit order, up to five times the number of vacancies, for an interview for eligibility assessment carrying 100 marks. Appointment is on the aggregate of written and interview marks.
  • Time limit: 18 hours across seven written papers.
  • Exam / certification fees: Rs. 1,200.00 for the 2026 cycle. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
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Sri Lanka Foreign Service Exam: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master Multilateral Treaties and Foundational Conventions: Memorize key provisions of the UN Charter (Articles 2(4), 27, 39, 41, 42, 51), the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961 (Articles 9, 22, 27, 29, 31, 32), and the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations 1963 (Articles 5, 31, 36, 41).
2Analyze Sri Lanka's Diplomatic Milestones and Regional Commitments: Review the 1951 San Francisco Peace Conference address, the 1952 Rubber-Rice Pact, the 1971 Indian Ocean as a Zone of Peace proposal, the 1976 Colombo NAM Summit, the 1987 Indo-Lanka Accord, and Sri Lanka's leadership roles in BIMSTEC, IORA, and the Colombo Security Conclave.
3Synthesize International Trade Economics and Commercial Diplomacy: Study GATT/WTO core tenets (MFN under Art. I, National Treatment under Art. III, General Exceptions under Art. XX), IMF Article IV surveillance, balance of payments structures, and sovereign debt restructuring mechanisms under Paris Club comparability of treatment.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Sri Lanka Foreign Service (SLFS) Grade III Open Competitive Examination?

The SLFS Grade III Open Competitive Examination is the statutory recruitment examination conducted by the Commissioner General of Examinations on behalf of the Public Service Commission, for the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, Foreign Employment and Tourism, under the Sri Lanka Foreign Service Minute of 06.12.2016. The 2026 cycle was called by a notification gazetted on 04.09.2026 to fill 25 vacancies, with the examination to be held in Colombo in November 2026. It selects university graduates for appointment as career diplomatic officers in Grade III of the Sri Lanka Foreign Service.

What is the structure, marking scheme, and passing standard of the examination?

The examination comprises seven written papers totalling 700 marks: General Paper (100, 3 hours), World Affairs I (100, 3 hours), World Affairs II (100, 3 hours), Essay (100, 3 hours), Précis (50, 30 minutes), the MCQ Paper on the Intelligence Test and General Knowledge and Current Affairs (150, 2 hours 30 minutes, two sections of 50 questions) and Language Proficiency (100, 3 hours). Every candidate sits the MCQ paper first and only those scoring at least 75 of its 150 marks may sit the remaining six papers. Candidates must then reach the minimum in each paper (40 marks on each 100-mark paper and 25 on the Précis) and an aggregate cut-off that shall not be less than 300 marks. Up to five times the number of vacancies are called in merit order for an interview for eligibility assessment carrying 100 marks, and appointment follows the aggregate of written and interview marks.

What are the eligibility criteria and application fees for the 2026 cycle?

Candidates must be citizens of Sri Lanka who have attained 22 and not attained 28 years on the closing date of applications (up to 35 years for serving public officers with a satisfactory record), and must hold a degree from a university recognised by the University Grants Commission, a university established by an Act of Parliament, or a qualification recognised under Section 25A of the Universities Act, No. 16 of 1978. No minimum class of degree is required, but no candidate may sit the examination on more than three occasions. The non-refundable examination fee is Rs. 1,200.00, paid through the online system by card, Bank of Ceylon online banking or a Bank of Ceylon branch.

Is this question bank an official examination paper issued by the Department of Examinations?

No. This question bank is an independent practice resource authored by OpenExamPrep for self-study and concept mastery. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sourced from the Department of Examinations Sri Lanka, the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, or the Public Service Commission.