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Key Facts: Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation Exam

6

Examination Modules

PSAD published modules

75 / 100

Pass Mark per Module

Rules, Order No. 273 (para. 26)

180 min

Maximum Duration per Module

Rules, Order No. 273

25 MRP

Fee per Module

PSAD candidate memo (108,125 KZT in 2026)

3 Years

Minimum Work Experience

Law On Auditing Activity No. 304-I, Art. 13

5 Years

Validity of a Module Pass

Rules as amended by Order No. 505

The Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation Examination is the statutory route to the auditor qualification certificate, administered by the PSAD Qualification Commission under Minister of Finance Order No. 273 as amended by Order No. 505. Candidates sit six written modules of up to 180 minutes each, needing 75 out of 100 on every one: IFRS financial accounting, management accounting, finance and financial management, Kazakhstan taxes, Kazakhstan law, and audit and ethics. Each module costs 25 MRP, which is 108,125 KZT in 2026. This bank provides 102 scenario-based questions as an independent English-language study adaptation, not an official translation or format simulation.

Sample Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 102+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under IAS 16 'Property, Plant and Equipment', an entity purchased production machinery for 45,000,000 KZT on 1 January 2024. Delivery and installation costs were 3,000,000 KZT. Initial operating losses before commercial production were 1,500,000 KZT. An initial estimate of dismantling and site restoration costs at the end of its 10-year useful life is 5,000,000 KZT (present value discounted at 10% is 1,927,716 KZT). What is the initial cost of the asset recognized on 1 January 2024?
A.48,000,000 KZT
B.49,927,716 KZT
C.51,427,716 KZT
D.53,000,000 KZT
Explanation: Under IAS 16.16, the cost of property, plant, and equipment comprises its purchase price (45,000,000 KZT), directly attributable costs to bring the asset to the location and condition necessary for operation (delivery and installation of 3,000,000 KZT), and the initial estimate of the costs of dismantling and removing the item and restoring the site, recognized at present value under IAS 37 (1,927,716 KZT). Initial operating losses of 1,500,000 KZT are explicitly excluded under IAS 16.19(d) and expensed in profit or loss. Therefore, initial cost = 45,000,000 + 3,000,000 + 1,927,716 = 49,927,716 KZT.
2An entity applies IAS 2 'Inventories'. At 31 December 2025, it holds 1,000 units of finished goods with a manufacturing cost of 12,000 KZT per unit. The expected selling price is 14,000 KZT per unit. However, completion costs to package the units will be 1,500 KZT per unit, and selling commissions will be 10% of the selling price. Under IAS 2, what total inventory value must be reported on the statement of financial position?
A.10,500,000 KZT
B.11,100,000 KZT
C.12,000,000 KZT
D.12,500,000 KZT
Explanation: Under IAS 2.9, inventories shall be measured at the lower of cost and net realizable value (NRV). Cost = 1,000 units × 12,000 KZT = 12,000,000 KZT. NRV is the estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less estimated costs of completion and estimated selling costs: NRV per unit = 14,000 - 1,500 - (10% × 14,000) = 14,000 - 1,500 - 1,400 = 11,100 KZT per unit. Total NRV = 1,000 × 11,100 = 11,100,000 KZT. Since NRV (11,100,000 KZT) is lower than cost (12,000,000 KZT), the inventory is measured at 11,100,000 KZT, with a 900,000 KZT write-down to profit or loss.
3On 1 January 2024, an entity entered into a 4-year lease of commercial office space in Almaty. Annual lease payments are 6,000,000 KZT payable at the end of each year. The lessee's incremental borrowing rate is 10% per annum. (Present value annuity factor for 4 years at 10% is 3.169865). The lessee incurred initial direct legal costs of 500,000 KZT and received a lease incentive from the lessor of 300,000 KZT at lease commencement. What is the initial carrying amount of the right-of-use (ROU) asset under IFRS 16?
A.18,719,190 KZT
B.19,019,190 KZT
C.19,219,190 KZT
D.19,519,190 KZT
Explanation: Under IFRS 16.24, the initial measurement of the right-of-use (ROU) asset comprises: (a) initial measurement of the lease liability, (b) any lease payments made at or before commencement date less lease incentives received, (c) initial direct costs incurred by the lessee, and (d) restoration costs. Here, the initial lease liability is 6,000,000 × 3.169865 = 19,019,190 KZT. ROU asset = Initial lease liability (19,019,190) + Initial direct costs (500,000) - Lease incentive received (300,000) = 19,219,190 KZT.
4Under IAS 36 'Impairment of Assets', an entity tests a cash-generating unit (CGU) with carrying amounts: Goodwill 8,000,000 KZT, Property, plant and equipment 24,000,000 KZT, and Patent 16,000,000 KZT (total carrying amount 48,000,000 KZT). The recoverable amount of the CGU is determined to be 34,000,000 KZT. None of the individual assets has a fair value less costs of disposal or value in use that can be determined separately. What is the revised carrying amount of the Property, plant and equipment after the impairment loss?
A.18,000,000 KZT
B.20,400,000 KZT
C.21,000,000 KZT
D.24,000,000 KZT
Explanation: Total impairment loss = Carrying amount (48,000,000 KZT) - Recoverable amount (34,000,000 KZT) = 14,000,000 KZT. Under IAS 36.104, impairment loss is allocated: first, to reduce the carrying amount of any goodwill allocated to the CGU (8,000,000 KZT, reducing goodwill to zero); second, the remaining loss of 6,000,000 KZT (14,000,000 - 8,000,000) is allocated pro rata to the other assets based on relative carrying amounts. Total non-goodwill assets = 24,000,000 + 16,000,000 = 40,000,000 KZT. PPE proportion = 24,000,000 / 40,000,000 = 60%. Impairment allocated to PPE = 60% × 6,000,000 = 3,600,000 KZT. Revised carrying amount of PPE = 24,000,000 - 3,600,000 = 20,400,000 KZT.
5Under IFRS 15 'Revenue from Contracts with Customers', an IT company enters into a contract to provide a customer with a software license, installation service, and 2 years of technical support for a single bundled price of 15,000,000 KZT. The installation does not significantly modify the software, and other vendors routinely perform identical installations. Standalone selling prices are: License 12,000,000 KZT; Installation 3,000,000 KZT; Technical support 5,000,000 KZT. How much transaction price should be allocated to the software license?
A.9,000,000 KZT
B.10,000,000 KZT
C.11,250,000 KZT
D.12,000,000 KZT
Explanation: Under IFRS 15, the transaction price must be allocated to distinct performance obligations in proportion to their relative standalone selling prices (Step 4). Because the software can be used without modification and installation is routinely available from third parties, all three promises are distinct. Total standalone selling prices = 12,000,000 + 3,000,000 + 5,000,000 = 20,000,000 KZT. The transaction price is 15,000,000 KZT (a 25% bundle discount). Allocated to Software License = (12,000,000 / 20,000,000) × 15,000,000 KZT = 60% × 15,000,000 = 9,000,000 KZT.
6Which of the following conditions is NOT required under IAS 38 for an internally generated intangible asset arising from development to be recognized?
A.Technical feasibility of completing the intangible asset so that it will be available for use or sale
B.Intention to complete the intangible asset and use or sell it
C.Demonstration that the asset has already generated positive operational cash inflows during the development phase
D.Availability of adequate technical, financial, and other resources to complete the development
Explanation: Under IAS 38.57, development costs are capitalized only when all six criteria are met: (1) technical feasibility, (2) intention to complete and use/sell, (3) ability to use or sell, (4) how the asset will generate probable future economic benefits, (5) availability of adequate resources to complete, and (6) ability to measure expenditures reliably. Demonstrating actual cash inflows during development is not required (and generally impossible, since the asset is not yet in commercial operation).
7Under IAS 37 'Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets', how should an entity account for a present obligation arising from past events where an outflow of economic benefits is probable and can be reliably estimated, versus a possible obligation where an outflow is not probable?
A.Recognize a provision for both in the statement of financial position
B.Recognize a provision for the probable obligation; disclose the possible obligation as a contingent liability in the notes
C.Disclose both in the notes without recognizing any liability
D.Recognize a provision for the possible obligation; recognize a contingent asset for the probable obligation
Explanation: Under IAS 37.14, a provision is recognized when: (1) an entity has a present obligation as a result of a past event, (2) it is probable that an outflow of resources embodying economic benefits will be required, and (3) a reliable estimate can be made. Under IAS 37.27, an entity does not recognize a contingent liability on the statement of financial position; instead, unless the possibility of an outflow is remote, a contingent liability is disclosed in the notes.
8On 1 January 2024, Parent Company acquired 80% of Subsidiary Company's equity shares for 160,000,000 KZT in cash. At that date, the fair value of Subsidiary's identifiable net assets was 150,000,000 KZT. Parent elected to measure non-controlling interest (NCI) at fair value, which was determined to be 38,000,000 KZT. What is the goodwill arising on acquisition under IFRS 3 'Business Combinations'?
A.40,000,000 KZT
B.48,000,000 KZT
C.50,000,000 KZT
D.58,000,000 KZT
Explanation: Under IFRS 3.32, goodwill is measured as: Consideration transferred + Amount of non-controlling interest (NCI) - Net fair value of identifiable assets acquired and liabilities assumed. Consideration transferred = 160,000,000 KZT. NCI at fair value = 38,000,000 KZT. Total value = 198,000,000 KZT. Net identifiable assets = 150,000,000 KZT. Goodwill = 198,000,000 - 150,000,000 = 48,000,000 KZT (full goodwill method).
9Under IFRS 9 'Financial Instruments', an entity purchases government bonds with fixed coupon payments and maturity dates. The entity's business model is to collect contractual cash flows AND to sell financial assets when market opportunities arise. Cash flows consist solely of payments of principal and interest (SPPI test passed). How must this debt instrument be classified and measured?
A.Amortized cost
B.Fair value through other comprehensive income (FVOCI) with recycling to profit or loss on derecognition
C.Fair value through profit or loss (FVTPL) irrevocably
D.Fair value through other comprehensive income (FVOCI) without recycling
Explanation: Under IFRS 9.4.1.2A, a financial asset is measured at Fair Value through Other Comprehensive Income (FVOCI) if: (a) it is held within a business model whose objective is achieved by both collecting contractual cash flows and selling financial assets, and (b) its contractual terms give rise on specified dates to cash flows that are solely payments of principal and interest (SPPI). For debt instruments at FVOCI, cumulative gains or losses in OCI are reclassified ('recycled') to profit or loss upon derecognition (IFRS 9.5.7.10).
10During 2025, an entity reported operating profit before working capital changes of 50,000,000 KZT under IAS 7 'Statement of Cash Flows'. Changes in working capital were: Trade receivables increased by 8,000,000 KZT, Inventories decreased by 3,000,000 KZT, and Trade payables decreased by 5,000,000 KZT. Income taxes paid during the year were 7,000,000 KZT. What was the net cash generated from operating activities?
A.33,000,000 KZT
B.40,000,000 KZT
C.47,000,000 KZT
D.53,000,000 KZT
Explanation: Under IAS 7 indirect method: Starting operating profit before working capital = 50,000,000 KZT. Adjustments for working capital: Increase in receivables is a cash outflow (-8,000,000 KZT); Decrease in inventory is a cash inflow (+3,000,000 KZT); Decrease in trade payables is a cash outflow (-5,000,000 KZT). Cash generated from operations = 50,000,000 - 8,000,000 + 3,000,000 - 5,000,000 = 40,000,000 KZT. Less income taxes paid (-7,000,000 KZT) = Net cash from operating activities = 33,000,000 KZT.

About the Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation Exam

The Auditor Attestation Examination (Аттестация кандидатов в аудиторы) is the statutory qualifying examination for the auditor qualification certificate in the Republic of Kazakhstan. It is run by the Qualification Commission of the Professional Council on Auditing Activity (PSAD) under the Rules approved by Order of the Minister of Finance No. 273 of 26 July 2006, as amended by Order No. 505 of 27 July 2026 with effect from 8 August 2026. PSAD publishes six examination modules: Financial Accounting and Reporting under IFRS, Management Accounting, Finance and Financial Management, Taxes, Law, and Audit and Ethics. The official examinations are written papers sat offline in Kazakh or Russian. This practice test is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation by OpenExamPrep; it is not an official translation, an official item set, or a simulation of the written examination format.

Exam sponsor: Qualification Commission of the Professional Council on Auditing Activity (PSAD). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Six modules (Financial Accounting and Reporting under IFRS; Management Accounting; Finance and Financial Management; Taxes; Law; Audit and Ethics), each a written paper of up to 180 minutes marked out of 100 with a 75-point pass mark

Time Limit

Up to 180 minutes (3 hours) per module

Passing Score

75 out of 100 on each module

Exam / Certification Fees

25 MRP per module (108,125 KZT in 2026; 648,750 KZT for all six)

Exam sponsor website

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

17%

Financial Accounting and Reporting under IFRS

IFRS standards (IAS 1, 2, 16, 36, 37, 38; IFRS 9, 15, 16), group consolidation, cash flows, and presentation

17%

Management Accounting

Cost classifications, CVP analysis, process and job costing, standard costing variances, and budgeting

16%

Finance and Financial Management

Time value of money, WACC, NPV, IRR, working capital cycles, financial ratios, and capital structure

17%

Taxes and Taxation of the Republic of Kazakhstan

Tax Code No. 214-VIII in force from 1 January 2026: Corporate Income Tax (20% general, 25% banking and gambling, 3% agricultural producers), VAT (16%), Individual Income Tax (10% up to 8,500 MRP a year and 15% above), Social Tax (6%), deductions, fixed asset depreciation groups, withholding tax on non-residents, and tax administration

16%

Law: civil law, banking, insurance and social legislation

Civil Code of RK (obligations, contracts, liability), the Law on Banks and Banking Activity No. 258-VIII of 16 January 2026, the Law on Insurance Activity No. 126-II, social legislation, and the corporate forms of the Law on LLPs (ТОО) and the Law on JSCs (АО)

17%

Audit and Professional Ethics

Law On Auditing Activity No. 304-I, International Standards on Auditing (ISAs), ISQM 1, and IESBA Code of Ethics

Preparing for the Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75 out of 100 on each module
  • Assessment: Six modules (Financial Accounting and Reporting under IFRS; Management Accounting; Finance and Financial Management; Taxes; Law; Audit and Ethics), each a written paper of up to 180 minutes marked out of 100 with a 75-point pass mark
  • Time limit: Up to 180 minutes (3 hours) per module
  • Exam / certification fees: 25 MRP per module (108,125 KZT in 2026; 648,750 KZT for all six) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 102 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master Kazakhstan Tax Code CIT calculations: distinguish between accounting profit under IFRS and taxable income adjusted for non-deductible expenses and fixed asset group tax depreciation
2Memorise the 2026 statutory rates under Tax Code No. 214-VIII: CIT 20% general, 25% for banking and gambling and 3% for agricultural producers; VAT 16%; individual income tax 10% up to 8,500 MRP a year and 15% above; social tax 6% with no reduction for social contributions
3Understand the key distinctions between Limited Liability Partnerships (ТОО) and Joint-Stock Companies (АО) regarding charter capital requirements, participant liability, and supervisory board structures
4Practice comprehensive IFRS computations: IFRS 16 lease liability and right-of-use asset amortizations, IFRS 15 five-step revenue allocation, and IAS 36 impairment testing
5Thoroughly review the Law of RK 'On Auditing Activity' No. 304-I, focusing on mandatory audit criteria, auditor independence restrictions, and working paper confidentiality
6Study International Standards on Auditing (ISAs), particularly ISA 315 risk assessment, ISA 320 materiality calculation benchmarks, and ISA 700/705/706 audit opinion formulation
7Work through management accounting variance formulas: material price and usage variances, labor rate and efficiency variances, and overhead expenditure and volume variances
8Review corporate rehabilitation and bankruptcy stages under RK law, including the exact hierarchy of creditor claims during liquidation
9Track which law applies on which date: the new Tax Code No. 214-VIII replaced the 2017 Code on 1 January 2026 and renumbered nearly every article, and the Law on Banks and Banking Activity No. 258-VIII replaced the 1995 Law on 19 March 2026

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation Examination?

The Auditor Attestation Examination (Аттестация кандидатов в аудиторы) is the statutory qualifying examination for the auditor qualification certificate (квалификационное свидетельство аудитора) in Kazakhstan. It is run by the Qualification Commission of the Professional Council on Auditing Activity (PSAD) under the Rules approved by Order of the Minister of Finance No. 273 of 26 July 2006, most recently amended by Order No. 505 of 27 July 2026 with effect from 8 August 2026.

What is the format and language of the official examination?

PSAD publishes six examination modules: Audit and Ethics, Taxes, Law, Management Accounting, Finance and Financial Management, and Financial Accounting and Reporting under IFRS. Each is a written paper of up to 180 minutes containing theory questions, practical tasks and tests, sat in Kazakh or Russian. PSAD states that its examinations are held offline and currently only in Almaty, twice a year. This practice test on OpenExamPrep is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation; it is not an official translation, an official item set, or a simulation of the written examination format.

What is the passing score for the attestation disciplines?

A candidate passes a module by scoring 75 points or more out of 100 on the modular assignment. Each module is marked separately, so a candidate who fails one retakes only that module at a later session. Under the Rules as amended by Order No. 505 with effect from 8 August 2026, a pass stays valid for five years from approval of the result, extended from four years.

How much does the Kazakhstan Auditor Attestation exam cost?

Under statutory regulations, the examination fee is set at 25 Monthly Calculation Indices (MRP / МРП) per discipline. In 2026, with the statutory MRP at 4,325 KZT, the fee is 108,125 KZT per exam paper, totaling 648,750 KZT for all six modular papers. Candidates seeking exemptions based on recognized international qualifications pay an administrative exemption fee of 12.5 MRP per paper.

Who is eligible to take the statutory auditor attestation?

Under the Rules approved by Order No. 273 as amended, an applicant needs a recognised higher education document and at least three years of work experience in the economic, financial, audit and control, or legal fields, or in teaching accounting and auditing at a higher education institution. The Commission will not register a candidate who has an unexpunged conviction in the sphere of economy and finance.

Are international accounting qualifications recognized for exemptions?

Yes. PSAD publishes a credit table: holders of ACA-ISAEW, ACCA or CPA (USA) are credited with Audit and Ethics, Finance and Financial Management, Financial Accounting and Reporting under IFRS, and Management Accounting, leaving Taxes and Law to sit. CIMA holders are credited with Finance and Financial Management and Management Accounting. IFA and DipIFR ACCA holders are credited with Financial Accounting and Reporting under IFRS. A qualifying examination or attestation as an advocate, notary or judge exempts the candidate from the Law module. Each credited exam costs 12.5 MRP, which is 54,063 KZT in 2026.

Is OpenExamPrep affiliated with the Qualification Commission or PSAD?

No. OpenExamPrep is an independent practice platform and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or associated with the Ministry of Finance of RK, the Professional Council on Auditing Activity (PSAD), or the Chamber of Auditors of Kazakhstan. This question bank is an independent English-language study adaptation designed solely for supplemental self-study.