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Key Facts: EDiR Exam

3 parts

EDiR has MRQ, Short Case and CORE computer-based parts

European Board of Radiology - All about the examination

90 minutes

Each EDiR part runs for 90 minutes

European Board of Radiology - All about the examination

70% / 30%

Written weighted score is 70% MRQs plus 30% Short Cases

European Board of Radiology - All about the examination

Mean minus 1 SD

EDiR pass mark is set per session, not a fixed percentage

Insights into Imaging (CORE implementation, 2020)

EUR 500

EDiR examination fee for ESR members

European Board of Radiology - Our guide for your application

5th year

Candidates must be at least in their fifth year of radiology training

European Board of Radiology - Our guide for your application

Since 2016

CORE replaced the former oral examination in 2016

Insights into Imaging (CORE implementation, 2020)

100

Free original general-radiology practice questions here

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The European Diploma in Radiology (EDiR) is a European certification from the European Board of Radiology (EBR/ESR) for radiologists and final-year residents. It is fully computer-based with three 90-minute parts: Multiple Response Questions (MRQs), Short Cases, and the Clinically Oriented Reasoning Evaluation (CORE). MRQ items may have more than one correct answer, and the written weighted score is 70% MRQs plus 30% Short Cases. There is no fixed pass percentage; the pass mark is Mean minus one Standard Deviation per session (around 53% written and 58% CORE), and each part must be passed. The fee is EUR 500 for ESR members. This 100-question bank gives single-best-answer practice across the EDiR general-radiology knowledge base.

Sample EDiR Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your EDiR exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which interaction is the dominant source of contrast in diagnostic X-ray imaging at typical kilovoltages?
A.Photoelectric effect
B.Compton scatter
C.Pair production
D.Coherent (Rayleigh) scatter
Explanation: At diagnostic energies, the photoelectric effect is strongly dependent on atomic number (proportional to Z cubed) and produces the tissue contrast that distinguishes bone, soft tissue and contrast agents. Compton scatter occurs but degrades contrast rather than creating it.
2The ALARA principle in radiation protection stands for keeping doses:
A.As Low As Reasonably Achievable
B.Above Legal And Regulatory Allowances
C.At Least As Recommended Annually
D.Around Low Average Reference Amounts
Explanation: ALARA means As Low As Reasonably Achievable, balancing dose reduction against diagnostic image quality and economic and social factors. It is a cornerstone of justified and optimised imaging.
3Which imaging modality uses no ionising radiation?
A.Computed tomography
B.Magnetic resonance imaging
C.Conventional radiography
D.Fluoroscopy
Explanation: MRI uses strong magnetic fields and radiofrequency pulses, not ionising radiation, making it preferred when avoiding dose is important. CT, radiography and fluoroscopy all use X-rays.
4On a CT image, the Hounsfield unit of water is defined as approximately:
A.-1000 HU
B.0 HU
C.+100 HU
D.+1000 HU
Explanation: The Hounsfield scale is calibrated so that water is 0 HU and air is approximately -1000 HU. Dense cortical bone is around +1000 HU or higher.
5On a T2-weighted MRI sequence, simple fluid such as cerebrospinal fluid appears:
A.Bright (high signal)
B.Dark (low signal)
C.Identical to fat
D.Without any signal
Explanation: Fluid has a long T2 relaxation time, so on T2-weighted images cerebrospinal fluid and other simple fluids appear bright. On standard T1-weighted images the same fluid appears dark.
6An anechoic structure on ultrasound with posterior acoustic enhancement most typically represents:
A.A solid tumour
B.A simple cyst
C.A calcified stone
D.Gas-containing bowel
Explanation: A simple cyst is anechoic (no internal echoes) and transmits sound well, producing posterior acoustic enhancement deep to it. This combination is a classic sign of a benign fluid-filled lesion.
7Which radiopharmaceutical is most commonly used for a bone scan to detect osteoblastic activity?
A.Technetium-99m MDP
B.Iodine-131
C.Fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)
D.Gallium-67 citrate
Explanation: Technetium-99m labelled methylene diphosphonate (MDP) binds to areas of active bone turnover and is the standard agent for skeletal scintigraphy. Increased uptake reflects osteoblastic activity from metastases, fractures or infection.
8Iodinated contrast media used in CT are based on which element to produce attenuation?
A.Gadolinium
B.Barium
C.Iodine
D.Iron
Explanation: CT contrast media contain iodine, whose high atomic number increases X-ray attenuation and opacifies vessels and enhancing tissues. Gadolinium is used for MRI, and barium is used for the gastrointestinal tract.
9Gadolinium-based contrast agents are most associated with which serious risk in patients with severe renal impairment?
A.Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis
B.Contrast-induced encephalopathy
C.Acute haemolysis
D.Malignant hyperthermia
Explanation: Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis is a rare fibrosing condition linked to gadolinium exposure in patients with severe renal impairment, particularly with older linear agents. Modern macrocyclic agents carry a much lower risk.
10First-line management of a severe anaphylactic reaction to intravenous iodinated contrast is administration of:
A.Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine)
B.Intravenous hydrocortisone alone
C.Oral antihistamine
D.Intravenous furosemide
Explanation: Severe anaphylaxis is treated first with intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine), typically 0.5 mg of 1:1000, alongside airway support and oxygen. Steroids and antihistamines are adjuncts with delayed onset.

About the EDiR Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for European Diploma in Radiology (EDiR) is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.