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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: AIBE Exam

100

Multiple-choice questions, 1 mark each, no negative marking

Bar Council of India AIBE syllabus

Core legal subjects covered in the AIBE syllabus

Bar Council of India

3 hours 30 minutes

Total duration of the open-book AIBE paper

Bar Council of India AIBE exam pattern

1 July 2024

Date BNS, BNSS and BSA replaced the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act

Government of India (new criminal laws)

40-45 / 100

Approximate category-wise qualifying cutoff (General/OBC; lower for SC/ST/PwD)

Bar Council of India category-wise cutoff

Certificate of Practice

Mandatory credential awarded on passing to practise law in India

Advocates Act, 1961 / Bar Council of India

AIBE is a 100-question, open-book MCQ exam (1 mark each, no negative marking) lasting 3 hours 30 minutes, conducted by the Bar Council of India. It covers 19 subjects, with the highest weight on Constitutional Law (10), CrPC/BNSS (10), CPC (10), IPC/BNS (8) and Evidence/BSA (8). The qualifying cutoff is category-based (around 40-45% General/OBC; 35-40% SC/ST/PwD), and passing earns the Certificate of Practice required to appear in Indian courts.

Sample AIBE Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your AIBE exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Constitution of India, the power of the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is conferred by which Article?

A.Article 32

B.Article 226

C.Article 136

D.Article 142

Explanation: Article 32 gives every person the right to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, and is itself a Fundamental Right (called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution by Dr. Ambedkar). The Court may issue habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.

2Which Article of the Constitution guarantees the right to equality before the law and equal protection of the laws?

A.Article 13

B.Article 19

C.Article 21

D.Article 14

Explanation: Article 14 guarantees to every person equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. It permits reasonable classification but prohibits class legislation and arbitrary state action.

3The 'basic structure' doctrine, limiting Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, was propounded in which landmark case?

A.A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

B.Minerva Mills v. Union of India

C.Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

D.Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

Explanation: In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge bench held that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 does not extend to altering the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. This doctrine remains the cornerstone of Indian constitutional law.

4Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV of the Constitution are:

A.Enforceable in a court of law like Fundamental Rights

B.Binding only on the State Legislatures

C.Applicable only to Union Territories

D.Fundamental in the governance of the country but not enforceable by any court

Explanation: Article 37 declares that the Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court, yet they are fundamental in the governance of the country and it is the duty of the State to apply them in making laws. They guide policy but cannot be directly enforced.

5Under Article 21 of the Constitution, after the decision in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, a law depriving a person of personal liberty must be:

A.Procedurally valid only, irrespective of fairness

B.Passed by a two-thirds majority of Parliament

C.Approved by the President in advance

D.Just, fair and reasonable, satisfying the test of Articles 14, 19 and 21

Explanation: Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) held that the 'procedure established by law' under Article 21 must be just, fair and reasonable, not arbitrary, and read Articles 14, 19 and 21 together. This expanded the due-process content of Article 21.

6The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), which replaced the Indian Penal Code, came into force on:

A.26 January 2024

B.1 April 2024

C.1 July 2024

D.15 August 2024

Explanation: The three new criminal codes - the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 - came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the IPC 1860, CrPC 1973 and Indian Evidence Act 1872 respectively.

7Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder is now provided under which section (formerly Section 302 IPC)?

A.Section 100 BNS

B.Section 101 BNS

C.Section 103(1) BNS

D.Section 105 BNS

Explanation: Section 103(1) of the BNS prescribes punishment for murder (death or imprisonment for life, and fine), corresponding to the old Section 302 IPC. Section 101 BNS defines murder (formerly IPC 300) and Section 100 BNS defines culpable homicide (formerly IPC 299).

8A new offence introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 for the first time as a distinct crime is:

A.Sedition in identical terms to old Section 124A

B.Theft of cattle

C.Adultery as a punishable offence

D.Mob lynching / murder by a group of five or more on identity grounds

Explanation: Section 103(2) BNS introduces a distinct provision for murder committed by a group of five or more persons on grounds such as race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief, etc., addressing mob lynching. The BNS also dropped the old sedition offence and adultery (already struck down in Joseph Shine).

9Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general exception covering an act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law is based on the principle of:

A.Mistake of law is no excuse

B.Strict liability in all cases

C.Vicarious criminal liability

D.Ignorance of fact may be an excuse

Explanation: The general exceptions in the BNS (like the old IPC Chapter IV) embody the maxim that a bona fide mistake of fact may excuse criminal liability, while mistake of law generally does not. An act done by a person bound, or believing in good faith by mistake of fact that he is bound, by law is excused.

10Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, criminal liability for an act done by several persons in furtherance of a common intention is governed by which principle (formerly Section 34 IPC)?

A.Each is liable only for his own individual act

B.Only the person who struck the fatal blow is liable

C.Liability arises only if a prior written agreement exists

D.Each is liable as if the act were done by him alone (joint liability)

Explanation: The common-intention principle (carried into the BNS from old Section 34 IPC) makes each participant liable as though the criminal act were done by him alone, where the act is done in furtherance of the common intention of all. A pre-arranged plan, inferable from conduct, suffices.

About the AIBE Exam

The All India Bar Examination (AIBE) is a national, open-book qualifying examination conducted by the Bar Council of India for law graduates enrolled as advocates. Candidates who clear it are awarded the Certificate of Practice (CoP), which is mandatory to practise law in India. The paper consists of 100 multiple-choice questions across 19 core legal subjects with no negative marking.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

Category-wise qualifying cutoff (approx. 40-45/100 for General/OBC and 35-40/100 for SC/ST/PwD); pass/fail, no merit list

Exam Fee

Approx. Rs. 3,560 (General/OBC) and Rs. 2,560 (SC/ST) (Bar Council of India (BCI))

AIBE Exam Content Outline

10%

Constitutional Law

Fundamental Rights and Duties, Directive Principles, writs under Articles 32 and 226, basic structure doctrine, emergency provisions and judicial review.

18%

Criminal Law & Procedure (BNS / BNSS)

Offences, general exceptions, private defence, theft, murder and culpable homicide under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, plus FIR, arrest, bail and remand under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 (with IPC/CrPC mapping).

18%

Civil Procedure & Evidence (CPC / BSA)

Jurisdiction, res judicata, pleadings, injunctions, decrees and limitation under the CPC; relevancy, burden of proof, confessions, dying declarations and electronic evidence under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023.

16%

Contract, Property, Family & Tort Laws

Indian Contract Act, Specific Relief, Transfer of Property, Negotiable Instruments, Hindu and Muslim personal laws, and the law of torts including the Motor Vehicles Act and Consumer Protection Act 2019.

13%

ADR, PIL, Administrative Law & Professional Ethics

Arbitration and Conciliation Act, Lok Adalats and Section 89 CPC; Public Interest Litigation; natural justice and judicial review; Advocates Act 1961 and BCI Rules on professional conduct and misconduct.

12%

Company, Labour, Taxation, Environmental, Cyber & IP Laws

Companies Act 2013, Industrial Disputes Act and gratuity, Income-tax and GST, Environment (Protection) Act and NGT, Information Technology Act, and Patents, Copyright and Trade Marks laws.

13%

Land Acquisition & Allied / Cross-Subject Topics

Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition Act 2013, easements, Right to Information Act and integrated fact-pattern questions spanning multiple subjects.

How to Pass the AIBE Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Category-wise qualifying cutoff (approx. 40-45/100 for General/OBC and 35-40/100 for SC/ST/PwD); pass/fail, no merit list
Exam length: 100 questions
Time limit: 3 hours 30 minutes
Exam fee: Approx. Rs. 3,560 (General/OBC) and Rs. 2,560 (SC/ST)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

AIBE Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master the IPC-to-BNS, CrPC-to-BNSS and Evidence Act-to-BSA section mappings, since the exam now tests the new criminal codes that took effect on 1 July 2024.

2Prioritise the high-weight subjects first: Constitutional Law, CrPC/BNSS, CPC, IPC/BNS and Evidence/BSA together make up nearly half the paper.

3Practise locating provisions quickly in bare Acts, because it is an open-book exam and speed of reference matters more than memorisation.

4Tab and organise your permitted bare Acts by subject so you can find the relevant section within seconds during the exam.

5Attempt every question since there is no negative marking; even an educated guess can only help your score.

6Use full-length timed mock tests to build stamina for the 3 hour 30 minute paper and to calibrate your pace at roughly two minutes per question.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is the AIBE an open-book examination?

Yes. The AIBE is an open-book exam, but candidates may carry only permitted reference materials such as unmarked bare Acts. Handwritten notes, annotations, commentaries and electronic devices are not allowed in the examination hall.

How many questions are there and is there negative marking?

There are 100 objective-type multiple-choice questions, each carrying 1 mark, for a total of 100 marks. There is no negative marking, so candidates should attempt every question.

What are the qualifying marks for AIBE?

The qualifying cutoff is category-based and set by the Bar Council of India for each edition, generally around 40-45% (40-45 marks) for General/OBC candidates and 35-40% (35-40 marks) for SC/ST/PwD candidates. AIBE is pass/fail with no merit list.

Does the AIBE test the new criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)?

Yes. Since the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act, the AIBE syllabus now tests criminal law, procedure and evidence primarily under these new codes.

How many subjects does the AIBE cover and which carry the most weight?

The AIBE syllabus covers 19 subjects. The highest weightage goes to Constitutional Law (10 questions), CrPC/BNSS (10), CPC (10), IPC/BNS (8), Evidence/BSA (8), Family Law (8) and Contract/Property/NI (8).

What do you get after passing the AIBE?

Candidates who qualify the AIBE are awarded the Certificate of Practice (CoP) by the Bar Council of India, which is mandatory to practise law and appear before courts in India.