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100+ Free Health and Safety Technician Practice Questions

Pass your IICRC Health and Safety Technician (HST) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Which infection-control concept requires treating ALL human blood and certain body fluids as if they were known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Health and Safety Technician Exam

~80

Exam Questions

IICRC HST Program

75%

Passing Score

IICRC HST Program

45 days

Online Completion Window

IICRC HST Program

$80

Exam Fee

IICRC HST Program

19.5%

Oxygen-Deficient Threshold

OSHA 1910.134(d)

5 years

OSHA 300/301/300A Retention

29 CFR 1904.33

The IICRC Health and Safety Technician (HST) exam is approximately 80 multiple-choice questions, 75% passing, delivered online with a 45-day completion window, $80 exam fee. The exam covers OSHA 29 CFR 1910 (General Industry) and 1926 (Construction), bloodborne pathogens under 1910.1030 (Exposure Control Plan, Hepatitis B vaccine, OPIM, regulated waste), respiratory protection under 1910.134 (APF values, fit testing, medical evaluation, IDLH), hazard communication / GHS under 1910.1200 (16-section SDS, pictograms, signal words DANGER/WARNING), PPE selection (ANSI Z87.1 / Z89.1 / ASTM F2413), fall protection (4 ft general industry / 6 ft construction trigger), lockout/tagout (1910.147), confined spaces (1910.146 permit-required), and asbestos (0.1 f/cc PEL) and lead (30 / 50 μg/m³ AL/PEL) awareness. Administered by IICRC (iicrc.org/hst/).

Sample Health and Safety Technician Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Health and Safety Technician exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which OSHA standard set applies to most general industry workplaces in the United States?
A.29 CFR 1910
B.29 CFR 1926
C.29 CFR 1928
D.40 CFR 261
Explanation: 29 CFR Part 1910 contains OSHA's Occupational Safety and Health Standards for General Industry, covering most non-construction, non-agriculture, non-maritime workplaces — including most restoration, cleaning, and inspection operations performed by IICRC HSTs.
2An IICRC technician performing reconstruction framing on a partially demolished home is most directly covered under which OSHA standard set?
A.29 CFR 1910 General Industry
B.29 CFR 1926 Construction
C.29 CFR 1915 Shipyards
D.29 CFR 1960 Federal Employees
Explanation: Construction, alteration, and repair work — including framing during reconstruction after a loss — is regulated under 29 CFR Part 1926, OSHA's Construction Industry standard.
3Which clause of the OSH Act of 1970 requires employers to provide a workplace 'free from recognized hazards' even when no specific standard exists?
A.Section 4(b)(1)
B.Section 5(a)(1) — General Duty Clause
C.Section 11(c) — Anti-retaliation
D.Section 17 — Penalties
Explanation: Section 5(a)(1) of the OSH Act — the General Duty Clause — requires each employer to furnish a place of employment free from recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious physical harm, even where no specific OSHA standard addresses the hazard.
4Which form does OSHA require employers to use to log all recordable work-related injuries and illnesses for the calendar year?
A.OSHA Form 300
B.OSHA Form 301
C.OSHA Form 300A
D.OSHA Form 174 (SDS)
Explanation: OSHA Form 300 is the 'Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses' — every recordable case for the year is entered onto the 300 log.
5How long must OSHA Forms 300, 301, and 300A be retained at the establishment after the end of the calendar year they cover?
A.1 year
B.3 years
C.5 years
D.30 years
Explanation: Under 29 CFR 1904.33, the OSHA 300 log, 301 incident reports, and 300A summary must be kept for 5 years following the end of the calendar year they cover.
6The OSHA Form 300A Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses must be posted in a conspicuous workplace location during which annual window?
A.January 1 to March 31
B.February 1 to April 30
C.March 1 to May 31
D.April 1 to June 30
Explanation: Per 29 CFR 1904.32, the 300A annual summary must be posted from February 1 through April 30 of the year following the year the records cover.
7Which of the following is NOT a recordable injury under 29 CFR 1904.7 even though first aid was provided?
A.Restricted-duty assignment for two work days
B.Job transfer to a different position
C.Bandage applied to a minor cut that did not require sutures
D.Loss of consciousness after a chemical exposure
Explanation: First aid alone — including bandaging minor cuts that do not require stitches — is excluded from OSHA recordability under 1904.7(b)(5). Only cases involving death, days away, restricted work, job transfer, medical treatment beyond first aid, loss of consciousness, or significant diagnosed conditions are recordable.
8Within what timeframe must an employer report a work-related in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye to OSHA?
A.8 hours
B.24 hours
C.48 hours
D.7 calendar days
Explanation: Per 29 CFR 1904.39, an employer must report any work-related in-patient hospitalization of one or more employees, amputation, or loss of an eye within 24 hours. A fatality must be reported within 8 hours.
9Which OSHA program-letter element is NOT required in an employer's written safety and health program at a minimum?
A.Management leadership and worker participation
B.Hazard identification and assessment
C.Hazard prevention and control
D.A daily mandatory pre-shift physical fitness test
Explanation: OSHA's Recommended Practices for Safety and Health Programs identify 7 core elements (management leadership, worker participation, hazard identification, hazard prevention, education/training, program evaluation, communication/coordination). Mandatory pre-shift physical fitness testing is not an OSHA program element.
10Under 29 CFR 1903, what is the maximum advance notice OSHA inspectors must give the employer before arriving for a non-emergency inspection?
A.None — inspections are typically unannounced
B.24 hours
C.72 hours
D.5 business days
Explanation: Under 29 CFR 1903.6, OSHA inspections are generally unannounced — providing advance notice is a misdemeanor unless authorized by the Assistant Secretary in limited circumstances.

About the Health and Safety Technician Exam

The IICRC HST (Health and Safety Technician) is a foundational professional credential covering OSHA-compliant safe-work practices for the cleaning, restoration, and inspection industry. The exam tests 29 CFR 1910 (General Industry) and 1926 (Construction) framework, bloodborne pathogens (1910.1030), respiratory protection (1910.134), hazard communication / GHS (1910.1200), PPE selection (1910.132), lockout/tagout (1910.147), confined spaces (1910.146), and basic asbestos/lead/heat-stress/ergonomics awareness. The exam is approximately 80 multiple-choice questions with a 75% passing score, delivered online with a 45-day completion window, and an $80 exam fee.

Assessment

Approximately 80 multiple-choice questions delivered online with a 45-day completion window

Time Limit

45-day online window

Passing Score

75%

Exam Fee

$80 exam fee (IICRC — Institute of Inspection, Cleaning and Restoration Certification)

Health and Safety Technician Exam Content Outline

16%

OSHA General Industry & Construction Overview

29 CFR 1910 vs 1926 scope, the General Duty Clause Section 5(a)(1), hierarchy of controls (elimination/substitution/engineering/administrative/PPE), recordkeeping under 29 CFR 1904 (Form 300 Log, Form 301 Incident Report, 300A Summary posting Feb 1–Apr 30, 5-year retention, 24-hour severe-injury and 8-hour fatality reporting), and the multi-employer worksite policy (creating/exposing/correcting/controlling)

16%

Bloodborne Pathogens — 1910.1030

Exposure Control Plan, Hepatitis B vaccination offered within 10 working days at no cost (with required declination form), universal precautions, OPIM definition (CSF, synovial, pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, amniotic, semen, vaginal secretions, unfixed tissue), engineering controls (SESIPs, self-sheathing needles), sharps containers (closable, puncture-resistant, leakproof, labeled), regulated waste, biohazard labeling, annual training, 30-year medical record retention

16%

Respiratory Protection — 1910.134

Written program, medical evaluation by PLHCP, fit testing (QLFT agents include isoamyl acetate/saccharin/Bitrex/irritant smoke; QNFT pass criteria 100 half-mask / 500 full-face), user seal check at each donning, APF table (N95=10, half-mask APR=10, full-face APR qualitative=10/quantitative=50, loose-fitting PAPR=25, tight-fitting full-face PAPR=1000, SCBA pressure-demand=10,000), oxygen-deficient threshold 19.5%, IDLH = positive-pressure SCBA, cartridge change-out by objective data, voluntary use Appendix D, no facial hair at seal

14%

Hazard Communication / GHS — 1910.1200

16-section SDS (Section 1 Identification, 2 Hazards, 3 Composition, 4 First-Aid, 8 Exposure Controls/PPE, 11 Toxicology), nine GHS pictograms, two GHS signal words DANGER (more severe) and WARNING, manufacturer label elements (product identifier, signal word, hazard statements, pictograms, precautionary statements, supplier identification), workplace label flexibility under 1910.1200(f)(6), written HazCom program, training requirements, 3-month SDS update timeframe

14%

PPE Selection — Eye, Head, Hand, Foot, Hearing, Fall Protection

1910.132(d) hazard assessment (written), ANSI Z87.1 (eye/face), ANSI Z89.1 (hard hats — Type I/II, Class G 2,200 V / Class E 20,000 V / Class C conductive), ASTM F2412/F2413 (footwear), ANSI/ISEA 105 cut levels (A1–A9), 1910.95 hearing conservation 85 dBA action level / 90 dBA PEL, fall-protection trigger heights (1910.28 general industry = 4 ft, 1926.501 construction = 6 ft, scaffold = 10 ft), PFAS 1,800-lb max arresting force with full-body harness

12%

Slips/Trips/Falls, Electrical, Ladders & Lockout/Tagout

1910.22 walking-working surfaces (clean, dry, orderly), GFCI Class A 5 mA trip, 1926.404 construction GFCI requirement for 125 V 15/20/30 A receptacles, defective-cord removal from service, ladder rules (4:1 angle, 3-ft side-rail extension, uniform rung spacing), 1910.147 Lockout/Tagout (authorized vs affected employee, written energy-control procedures, annual periodic inspection, lock removed only by applier except via documented exception procedure)

8%

Confined Spaces, Asbestos & Lead Awareness

1910.146 permit-required confined-space definitions (hazardous atmosphere / engulfment / configuration trap / other serious hazard, plus limited entry/exit), atmospheric testing order O2 → LEL → toxics, acceptable O2 range 19.5%–23.5%, attendant duties (does NOT enter for rescue), asbestos 1926.1101 PEL 0.1 f/cc TWA with 1.0 f/cc excursion limit and four work classes, lead 1926.62 AL 30 μg/m³ and PEL 50 μg/m³ (8-hr TWAs)

4%

Heat/Cold Stress & Ergonomics

OSHA heat-index risk levels (lower <91, moderate 91–103, high 103–115, very high ≥115 °F), heat exhaustion vs heat stroke (heat stroke = altered mental status, hot dry skin, T ≥104 °F — 911), hydration about 8 oz every 15–20 minutes, hypothermia signs (shivering, slurred speech, loss of coordination), WMSD ergonomic risk factors (force, repetition, awkward posture, contact stress, vibration, cold)

How to Pass the Health and Safety Technician Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75%
  • Assessment: Approximately 80 multiple-choice questions delivered online with a 45-day completion window
  • Time limit: 45-day online window
  • Exam fee: $80 exam fee

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Health and Safety Technician Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the OSHA APF table cold — APF questions are among the most heavily tested on the HST exam (N95/half-mask APR = 10; full-face APR quantitatively fit-tested = 50; tight-fitting full-face PAPR = 1,000)
2Know the difference between 4 ft (general industry / 1910.28) and 6 ft (construction / 1926.501) fall-protection triggers — many exam items use one to distract from the other
3Memorize the OSHA recordkeeping retention triad: 300/301/300A = 5 years; medical = 30 years post-employment; BBP training = 3 years
4Hepatitis B vaccination must be offered within 10 working days of initial assignment at no cost; declination must be on the OSHA-specific declination form
5The SDS has 16 sections — know at minimum: Section 1 (Identification), 2 (Hazards), 4 (First-Aid), 8 (Exposure Controls/PPE), 11 (Toxicology)
6GHS has exactly two signal words — DANGER (more severe) and WARNING. Caution and Notice are NOT GHS signal words
7Confined-space atmospheric testing order is always O2 → LEL → Toxics (and acceptable O2 = 19.5%–23.5%)
8IDLH atmospheres require positive-pressure SCBA or pressure-demand SAR with auxiliary SCBA — never an APR

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the IICRC HST exam format and passing score?

The IICRC HST exam consists of approximately 80 multiple-choice questions with a 75% passing score. It is delivered online with a 45-day completion window after registration. The exam fee is $80. Confirm current details at iicrc.org/hst/.

What are the prerequisites for the IICRC HST exam?

The IICRC HST has no formal prerequisites. However, IICRC strongly recommends completing an approved training course before sitting the exam. The credential is foundational and is often combined with other IICRC certifications such as WRT, AMRT, or MRS.

Which OSHA standards are most heavily tested on the HST exam?

The HST exam focuses on five OSHA standards: 29 CFR 1910 (General Industry framework and recordkeeping), 1910.1030 (Bloodborne Pathogens — Exposure Control Plan, Hepatitis B, universal precautions, OPIM, regulated waste, sharps), 1910.134 (Respiratory Protection — APF values, fit testing, medical evaluation, IDLH), 1910.1200 (Hazard Communication / GHS — 16-section SDS, pictograms, DANGER vs WARNING), and 1910.132 (PPE Selection). Construction-specific items appear from 29 CFR 1926 (e.g., 1926.501 fall protection, 1926.1101 asbestos, 1926.62 lead).

What are the most important Assigned Protection Factor (APF) values to memorize?

From 1910.134 Table 1: N95 filtering facepiece or half-mask APR = APF 10; full-facepiece APR (qualitatively fit-tested) = 10; full-facepiece APR (quantitatively fit-tested) = 50; loose-fitting PAPR or supplied-air hood/helmet = 25; tight-fitting full-facepiece PAPR or pressure-demand SAR = 1,000; pressure-demand SCBA = 10,000. Use APF × PEL to determine maximum-use concentration.

How long must various OSHA records be kept?

Key retention periods: OSHA Forms 300, 301, and 300A = 5 years following the end of the calendar year (1904.33). Employee medical/exposure records = duration of employment plus 30 years (1910.1020 and 1910.1030(h)(1)). BBP training records = 3 years (1910.1030(h)(2)(ii)). Respirator fit-test records = at least until the next fit test (1910.134(m)). The OSHA 300A summary must be posted Feb 1–Apr 30 of the following year (1904.32).

What are the fall protection trigger heights?

Per OSHA: General industry walking-working surfaces (1910.28) — fall protection required at 4 feet or more above a lower level. Construction (1926.501) — fall protection required at 6 feet or more. Scaffolds (1926.451) — fall protection required at 10 feet or more. PFAS must use a full-body harness (body belts are not permitted for fall arrest) and limit maximum arresting force on the worker to 1,800 lb.

What is the difference between 'authorized' and 'affected' employees in lockout/tagout?

Per 1910.147(b): An 'authorized' employee is one who locks/tags out machines or equipment to perform servicing or maintenance. An 'affected' employee is one whose job requires them to operate or use the machine being serviced, or to be in the area where servicing is performed. Only the authorized employee who applied the lock may remove it, except via a documented exception procedure. Periodic inspections of the energy-control procedure must be conducted at least annually.