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IFoA SP10 Banking Specialist Principles practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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Under IFRS 9, financial assets are classified into measurement categories based on the business model and the contractual cash-flow (SPPI) test. A plain-vanilla loan held to collect contractual payments is measured at:

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: IFoA SP10 Exam

ASSA B100

Delivered As

IFoA banking curriculum

Written

Exam Format

ASSA B100

9

Syllabus Domains

SP10 syllabus

72.5%

Basel Output Floor

BCBS 2017 reforms

30 days

LCR Stress Horizon

Basel III

100

Practice Questions

OpenExamPrep

IFoA SP10 Banking Specialist Principles is delivered through the Actuarial Society of South Africa (ASSA) as course B100 Banking Principles, an online invigilated examination with typed answers rather than a multiple-choice test. Banking SP10 (and the advanced SA10/B200) cannot be booked directly through the IFoA; candidates register on the ASSA website, and fees are quoted in South African Rand. The syllabus covers banking business and the balance sheet, credit-risk modelling (PD, LGD, EAD and IFRS 9 expected credit loss), market and interest-rate risk in the banking book, liquidity risk (LCR and NSFR), operational risk, Basel III/IV capital and RWA, stress testing and ICAAP, ALM and funds transfer pricing, and banking regulation and governance. This free set provides 100 MCQ knowledge-prep questions across those domains.

Sample IFoA SP10 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your IFoA SP10 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1In the IFRS 9 expected credit loss (ECL) framework, what is the standard decomposition of the ECL for a credit exposure over a given horizon?
A.ECL = PD x LGD x EAD (appropriately discounted)
B.ECL = PD + LGD + EAD
C.ECL = EAD / (PD x LGD)
D.ECL = LGD x EAD / PD
Explanation: IFRS 9 expected credit loss is built from three risk parameters: probability of default (PD), loss given default (LGD) and exposure at default (EAD), combined multiplicatively and discounted to present value using the effective interest rate. This is the core credit-risk identity tested in SP10/B100.
2Under IFRS 9, a performing loan with no significant increase in credit risk since origination is classified in which stage, and what ECL is recognised?
A.Stage 3, with lifetime ECL and interest on net carrying amount
B.Stage 1, with 12-month ECL and interest on gross carrying amount
C.Stage 2, with lifetime ECL and interest on gross carrying amount
D.Stage 1, with lifetime ECL and interest on net carrying amount
Explanation: IFRS 9 uses a three-stage model. Stage 1 covers exposures that have not shown a significant increase in credit risk; banks recognise 12-month ECL and accrue interest on the gross carrying amount. A significant increase moves the asset to Stage 2 (lifetime ECL), and credit-impairment moves it to Stage 3.
3A bank's exposure at default is GBP 500,000, the LGD is 40% and the 12-month PD is 2%. Ignoring discounting, what is the 12-month expected credit loss?
A.GBP 200,000
B.GBP 10,000
C.GBP 4,000
D.GBP 40,000
Explanation: ECL = PD x LGD x EAD = 0.02 x 0.40 x 500,000 = GBP 4,000. The PD scales the loss to its probability, the LGD captures the fraction not recovered, and the EAD is the amount outstanding at default.
4Which definition best describes Loss Given Default (LGD) in a credit-risk model?
A.The probability the obligor defaults within one year
B.The total amount owed at the moment of default
C.The discount rate applied to recovered cash flows
D.The proportion of the exposure that is lost if default occurs, net of recoveries
Explanation: LGD is the economic loss as a percentage of the exposure at default, after accounting for recoveries from collateral, guarantees and the workout process. It is one minus the recovery rate and typically lies between 0 and 1.
5Under IFRS 9, what is the primary trigger for moving a financial asset from Stage 1 to Stage 2?
A.A significant increase in credit risk since initial recognition
B.The asset becoming 90 days past due only
C.A fall in the risk-free interest rate
D.The bank breaching its leverage ratio
Explanation: Stage 2 is triggered by a significant increase in credit risk (SICR) relative to origination, assessed using changes in lifetime PD, watchlist status, rating downgrades and other indicators. Crossing into Stage 2 changes the measurement from 12-month to lifetime ECL.
6A bank uses a structural (Merton) model of default. In this model, the firm defaults when which condition holds at the debt maturity?
A.The firm's equity volatility exceeds a threshold
B.The asset value falls below the face value of debt
C.The firm's credit spread widens by more than 100 bps
D.The risk-free rate exceeds the asset return
Explanation: In the Merton structural model, equity is a call option on the firm's assets with strike equal to the debt's face value. Default occurs at maturity if the asset value is below the debt's face value, so equity holders do not exercise and creditors take the assets.
7Within a bank's balance sheet, which item is typically the largest category on the asset side of a traditional commercial bank?
A.Customer deposits
B.Issued subordinated debt
C.Loans and advances to customers
D.Share capital and reserves
Explanation: For a traditional commercial bank, loans and advances to customers (the lending book) dominate the asset side, generating interest income. Deposits, subordinated debt and equity are funding sources and appear on the liability and equity side.
8What does a bank's net interest margin (NIM) primarily measure?
A.Total operating costs divided by total income
B.Loan losses as a percentage of gross loans
C.Tier 1 capital divided by risk-weighted assets
D.Net interest income as a percentage of interest-earning assets
Explanation: Net interest margin expresses net interest income (interest earned minus interest paid) as a percentage of average interest-earning assets. It is a core profitability measure for the banking book and reflects pricing, funding cost and asset mix.
9Which statement best describes the principal economic function of a bank in financial intermediation?
A.It transforms short-term liquid liabilities into longer-term, less liquid assets
B.It eliminates all credit and market risk from the economy
C.It guarantees a fixed return to all depositors regardless of performance
D.It operates without exposure to interest-rate risk
Explanation: Banks perform maturity transformation: they fund longer-term, less liquid loans using shorter-term, more liquid deposits and wholesale funding. This intermediation also involves credit, liquidity and interest-rate risk, which the bank must manage rather than eliminate.
10A bank reports operating expenses of GBP 60m and total operating income of GBP 150m. What is its cost-to-income ratio?
A.250%
B.40%
C.90%
D.60%
Explanation: Cost-to-income ratio = operating expenses / operating income = 60 / 150 = 40%. A lower ratio indicates greater operating efficiency; banks typically target ratios below 50-60%.

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Verified exam format metadata for IFoA SP10 Banking Specialist Principles is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.