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100+ Free IFoA CP1 Practice Questions

IFoA Subject CP1 Actuarial Practice practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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The chain ladder method is commonly used in general insurance to:

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to track
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Key Facts: IFoA CP1 Exam

2 papers

Exam Structure

IFoA CP1 curriculum

3h 20m

Paper 1 Length

IFoA CP1 curriculum

400 hrs

Recommended Study

IFoA CP1 curriculum

~GBP 400

Exam Fee

IFoA fees schedule

Core Practices

Subject Group

IFoA qualification structure

Set per session

Pass Standard

IFoA Board of Examiners

IFoA Subject CP1 Actuarial Practice is a Core Practices subject assessed through two online written papers sat in the same session: Paper 1 lasts 3 hours 20 minutes and Paper 2 allows 45 minutes of planning plus 2 hours 30 minutes of writing for a case study. Candidates type answers in Word rather than choosing from multiple choice. The IFoA recommends roughly 400 study hours and does not publish a fixed pass mark or question count, with the Board of Examiners setting the standard each session. The CP1 fee is approximately GBP 400 per sitting. This free set offers 100 multiple-choice questions to build the underlying knowledge across the control cycle, pricing, capital, ALM, reinsurance and monitoring.

Sample IFoA CP1 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your IFoA CP1 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1The actuarial control cycle is often summarised in three core stages. Which sequence correctly describes them?
A.Specifying the problem, developing the solution, monitoring the experience
B.Setting assumptions, calculating reserves, declaring a dividend
C.Pricing the product, marketing the product, paying claims
D.Identifying capital, raising capital, returning capital
Explanation: The actuarial control cycle has three stages: specifying the problem, developing the solution, and monitoring the experience. The cycle is iterative because monitoring feeds back into a refined understanding of the problem.
2Surrounding the actuarial control cycle in CP1 are two contextual elements that influence every stage. Which pair are they?
A.The general commercial/economic environment and professionalism
B.Marketing strategy and brand reputation
C.Tax planning and dividend policy
D.Software selection and IT governance
Explanation: CP1 frames the control cycle as operating within the general commercial and economic environment, and underpinned throughout by professionalism. Both shape how each stage of the cycle is carried out.
3Within an enterprise risk management framework, which step logically comes first?
A.Risk identification
B.Risk mitigation
C.Capital allocation against risk
D.Reporting residual risk to the board
Explanation: You cannot measure, mitigate or report a risk you have not identified. Risk identification is the first step of a risk management process, followed by measurement, response and monitoring.
4A risk register typically records both the gross (inherent) risk and the net (residual) risk. What does the residual risk represent?
A.The risk remaining after controls and mitigation are applied
B.The risk before any controls are considered
C.The maximum possible loss ignoring probability
D.The risk transferred to a reinsurer only
Explanation: Residual (net) risk is the exposure that remains once mitigation and controls have been applied. Inherent (gross) risk is the exposure before controls. The difference reflects the effectiveness of risk responses.
5The four broad responses to a risk are usually described as avoid, reduce, transfer and retain. Buying reinsurance against catastrophe losses is an example of which response?
A.Transfer
B.Avoid
C.Retain
D.Reduce by diversification
Explanation: Reinsurance moves the financial consequences of a risk to another party, so it is a risk transfer. Avoidance means not taking the risk at all, retention means accepting it, and reduction lowers frequency or severity.
6A risk is assessed as low probability but extremely high impact, such as a major pandemic. Which combined response is generally most appropriate for such a tail risk?
A.Retain a manageable layer and transfer the extreme tail
B.Avoid all business with any pandemic exposure
C.Ignore it because the probability is low
D.Increase the risk deliberately to earn more premium
Explanation: Low-probability, high-impact risks are commonly handled by retaining a layer the firm can absorb and transferring the extreme tail through reinsurance or capital markets. Ignoring or deliberately increasing such risk would be imprudent.
7In the 'specifying the problem' stage, an actuary must first establish which of the following?
A.The objectives and constraints of the client or sponsor
B.The final reserve figure
C.The reinsurance recoveries for the year
D.The marketing budget for the product
Explanation: Specifying the problem starts with clearly understanding the objectives, scope and constraints of the party requiring advice. Without a clear problem definition, any solution risks answering the wrong question.
8Why is the actuarial control cycle described as a 'cycle' rather than a linear process?
A.Monitoring feeds back to refine the problem and solution over time
B.It must be completed exactly once per calendar year
C.It can only ever be applied to general insurance
D.It removes all uncertainty from financial projections
Explanation: Monitoring the experience reveals where assumptions or designs diverged from reality, feeding back into a revised specification and solution. This continuous feedback loop makes the process cyclical rather than one-off.
9Operational risk in a financial provider is best described as the risk of loss arising from which source?
A.Inadequate or failed internal processes, people, systems or external events
B.Adverse movements in market interest rates only
C.Policyholders living longer than expected
D.A counterparty failing to pay amounts owed
Explanation: Operational risk is the risk of loss from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems, or from external events such as fraud or disasters. It is distinct from market, longevity and credit risk.
10A risk matrix plots risks by probability against impact. Risks in the high-probability, high-impact quadrant should ordinarily receive what priority?
A.Highest priority for active management and mitigation
B.No action because they are too expensive to address
C.Lowest priority because they are rare
D.Transfer to policyholders automatically
Explanation: Risks that are both likely and severe pose the greatest threat and should be the top priority for mitigation or transfer. The matrix helps allocate management attention proportionately to the threat.

About the IFoA CP1 Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for IFoA Subject CP1 Actuarial Practice is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.