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Key Facts: UKOMNAS PDPA Exam

CBT

Current national knowledge-assessment component confirmed

2026 UKOMNAS PDPA reporting

OSCE

Current national performance-assessment component confirmed

2026 UKOMNAS PDPA reporting

Not published

Current official item, station and timing details

Primary sources reviewed

Not published

Current passing threshold and national pass rate

Primary sources reviewed

Lifetime

STRA Validity

UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 tentang Kesehatan

Current 2026 sources confirm CBT and OSCE components for UKOMNAS PDPA. This independent OpenExamPrep bank provides 100 English-language four-option practice MCQs for clinical, community, industrial, supply-chain, law, and ethics review. It is not an official translation, testing simulation, OSCE substitute, or endorsement.

Sample UKOMNAS PDPA Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the UKOMNAS PDPA exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 54-year-old male with long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus is evaluated in an outpatient clinic. His blood pressure is 152/94 mmHg on two consecutive visits. Laboratory findings reveal an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 48 mL/min/1.73 m² and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR) of 220 mg/g. Which antihypertensive class is the preferred initial choice for this patient?
A.Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI) or Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
B.Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (CCB) monotherapy
C.Thiazide-like diuretic monotherapy
D.Non-selective beta-blocker
Explanation: Per PERKI, KDIGO, and ADA guidelines, an ACE inhibitor (e.g., lisinopril, ramipril) or an ARB (e.g., candesartan, losartan) is the first-line antihypertensive therapy in diabetic kidney disease with albuminuria. These agents preferentially dilate the efferent arteriole, reducing intraglomerular hydrostatic pressure and slowing renal disease progression. Blood pressure should be targeted below 130/80 mmHg while monitoring serum creatinine and potassium levels within 2-4 weeks of initiation.
2A 66-year-old woman with refractory hypertension has hemodynamically significant bilateral renal artery stenosis. Why can starting an ACE inhibitor cause an abrupt decline in kidney function?
A.It causes profound renal vasodilation leading to acute tubular necrosis
B.It blocks angiotensin II-mediated efferent arteriolar constriction, precipitating acute renal failure
C.It induces massive renal afferent arteriolar constriction and hypoperfusion
D.It causes rapid potassium depletion leading to severe cardiac dysrhythmias
Explanation: When perfusion to both kidneys is limited, angiotensin II-mediated efferent arteriolar constriction helps maintain intraglomerular pressure. ACE inhibition dilates the efferent arteriole and can sharply reduce GFR, especially with volume depletion or diuretics. This is a high-risk setting requiring specialist judgment and close creatinine and potassium monitoring rather than an unqualified claim that the drug is absolutely forbidden in every circumstance.
3A 60-year-old male with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, LVEF 28%, NYHA Class III) is currently treated with enalapril 10 mg twice daily, carvedilol 25 mg twice daily, and spironolactone 25 mg once daily. His cardiologist decides to switch enalapril to sacubitril/valsartan (ARNI). What crucial counseling instruction must the clinical pharmacist provide regarding the transition?
A.Start sacubitril/valsartan immediately with the next scheduled dose to maintain hemodynamic stability
B.Wait at least 36 hours after the last dose of enalapril before initiating sacubitril/valsartan
C.Reduce the carvedilol dose by half during the first 48 hours of starting sacubitril/valsartan
D.Stop spironolactone 7 days prior to initiation to prevent severe hypokalemia
Explanation: A mandatory 36-hour washout period is required when transitioning from an ACE inhibitor to an ARNI (sacubitril/valsartan) to minimize the risk of life-threatening angioedema. Both ACE inhibitors and neprilysin inhibitors prevent the degradation of bradykinin through distinct enzymatic pathways; concurrent or overlapping administration causes a synergistic elevation of circulating bradykinin levels. If switching from an ARB to an ARNI, no washout period is necessary because ARBs do not inhibit bradykinin metabolism.
4A 58-year-old male undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with drug-eluting stent (DES) placement following an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). He is prescribed dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) with aspirin and clopidogrel. Pharmacogenomic testing reveals that he carries two loss-of-function alleles for CYP2C19 (*2/*2). What is the primary clinical concern for this patient?
A.Markedly increased risk of major gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to toxic active metabolite accumulation
B.Severely impaired bioactivation of clopidogrel leading to increased risk of stent thrombosis and recurrent MI
C.Accelerated renal elimination of active clopidogrel resulting in subtherapeutic antiplatelet coverage
D.Competitive displacement of aspirin from platelet cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) binding sites
Explanation: Clopidogrel is an inactive prodrug that requires a two-step hepatic bioactivation process, in which CYP2C19 plays an indispensable rate-limiting role. Patients who are CYP2C19 poor metabolizers (carrying two loss-of-function alleles such as *2 or *3) cannot form adequate concentrations of the active thiol metabolite, resulting in diminished platelet inhibition and a high risk of adverse ischemic events, including catastrophic stent thrombosis. In such patients, alternative P2Y12 inhibitors that do not depend on CYP2C19 for bioactivation, such as ticagrelor or prasugrel, are recommended.
5A 52-year-old male with a history of acute coronary syndrome 6 months ago presents for routine follow-up. His lipid panel shows: Total Cholesterol 240 mg/dL, Triglycerides 170 mg/dL, HDL-C 38 mg/dL, and LDL-C 155 mg/dL. He has no history of myopathy or liver disease. According to PERKI and dyslipidemia clinical guidelines, what is the most appropriate statin regimen?
A.Simvastatin 10 mg once daily at bedtime
B.Pravastatin 20 mg once daily in the morning
C.Atorvastatin 40 mg once daily
D.Lovastatin 20 mg once daily with dinner
Explanation: In secondary prevention for patients with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD), high-intensity statin therapy is recommended to achieve an LDL-C reduction of at least 50% from baseline and a target LDL-C < 55 mg/dL. The only two high-intensity statin regimens are Atorvastatin 40-80 mg daily and Rosuvastatin 20-40 mg daily. Moderate- or low-intensity statins (like simvastatin 10 mg or pravastatin 20 mg) do not provide adequate LDL-C lowering or cardiovascular event reduction in very high-risk ASCVD patients.
6A 63-year-old female taking simvastatin 40 mg daily is prescribed gemfibrozil 600 mg twice daily for severe hypertriglyceridemia. Three weeks later, she presents to the emergency department with severe generalized muscle tenderness, dark reddish-brown urine, and a serum creatine kinase (CK) level of 14,200 IU/L. What is the pharmacokinetic mechanism underlying this severe adverse reaction?
A.Gemfibrozil induces CYP3A4, causing rapid hepatic conversion of simvastatin to toxic myotoxic metabolites
B.Gemfibrozil inhibits simvastatin glucuronidation and OATP1B1 hepatic uptake, markedly increasing systemic statin exposure
C.Gemfibrozil displaces simvastatin from human serum albumin, elevating free unbound renal tubular toxins
D.Gemfibrozil accelerates intestinal absorption of simvastatin via P-glycoprotein upregulation
Explanation: Gemfibrozil significantly increases the risk of statin-induced myopathy and rhabdomyolysis because it inhibits both the OATP1B1 (organic anion transporting polypeptide 1B1) influx transporter and statin glucuronidation (via UGT1A1 and UGT1A3), which is a key pathway for the elimination of statin hydroxy acid forms. This dual inhibition leads to a several-fold increase in systemic statin plasma concentrations. In contrast, fenofibrate does not significantly inhibit statin glucuronidation or OATP1B1 and is the fibrate of choice when combination therapy with a statin is clinically necessary.
7According to the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines, which strategy is the preferred reliever and controller approach in Step 2 management of adult and adolescent asthma?
A.Short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) monotherapy taken exclusively as needed for symptom relief
B.As-needed low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) combined with formoterol
C.Daily low-dose theophylline sustained-release tablet with SABA as needed
D.Oral leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) taken as needed during acute bronchospasm
Explanation: GINA Track 1 recommends as-needed low-dose ICS-formoterol across Steps 1 and 2 as the preferred strategy for adolescents and adults. Formoterol provides rapid bronchodilation comparable to a SABA within 1-3 minutes, while the simultaneous administration of an inhaled corticosteroid (e.g., budesonide) treats the underlying airway inflammation and drastically reduces the risk of severe exacerbations and asthma-related death compared to SABA monotherapy.
8A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with an acute severe asthma exacerbation. She is tachypneic (respiratory rate 32 breaths/min), wheezing diffusely, and unable to speak in full sentences. Her oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. In addition to supplemental oxygen, what is the initial pharmacotherapy of choice?
A.Frequent nebulized short-acting beta-2 agonist (salbutamol) plus ipratropium bromide, accompanied by systemic corticosteroids
B.Intravenous aminophylline infusion plus subcutaneous terbutaline
C.Subcutaneous epinephrine injection plus high-dose oral montelukast
D.Inhaled fluticasone propionate high-dose dry powder inhaler alone
Explanation: Initial emergency management of severe acute asthma exacerbation includes supplemental controlled oxygen, repetitive or continuous inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonists (salbutamol 2.5-5 mg via nebulizer) combined with an inhaled anticholinergic (ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg), and early administration of systemic corticosteroids (e.g., oral prednisolone 40-50 mg or IV methylprednisolone). The combination of salbutamol and ipratropium provides additive bronchodilation and reduces hospitalization rates.
9A 68-year-old male with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD, post-bronchodilator FEV1 42% predicted) continues to experience frequent exacerbations (two hospitalizations in the past year) despite adherent maintenance therapy with tiotropium (LAMA) plus formoterol (LABA). His complete blood count reveals a blood eosinophil count of 380 cells/µL. According to GOLD guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
A.Discontinue formoterol and start daily oral theophylline
B.Add an Inhaled Corticosteroid (ICS) to create triple therapy (LABA + LAMA + ICS)
C.Initiate long-term continuous oral prednisone 20 mg daily
D.Replace tiotropium with an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation: Per GOLD guidelines, patients with COPD who have persistent exacerbations despite dual bronchodilator therapy (LABA + LAMA) and possess a blood eosinophil count >= 300 cells/µL derive significant clinical benefit from the addition of an inhaled corticosteroid (triple therapy: LABA + LAMA + ICS). Triple therapy reduces exacerbation frequency, improves lung function, and decreases all-cause mortality in this subgroup without the systemic toxicities of long-term oral steroids.
10A 48-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. His laboratory results show: fasting plasma glucose 155 mg/dL, 2-hour postprandial glucose 210 mg/dL, and HbA1c 7.8%. His eGFR is 88 mL/min/1.73 m², and liver function tests are normal. He has no symptoms of metabolic decompensation or established cardiovascular disease. Per PERKENI and ADA guidelines, which agent is the initial drug of choice?
A.Metformin
B.Glimepiride
C.Acarbose
D.Pioglitazone
Explanation: Metformin remains the universally recommended first-line oral antidiabetic pharmacotherapy for type 2 diabetes mellitus, in conjunction with lifestyle modifications. It effectively lowers hepatic glucose production, improves peripheral insulin sensitivity, does not cause hypoglycemia as monotherapy, is weight neutral or promotes modest weight loss, has demonstrated long-term cardiovascular safety, and is highly cost-effective.

About the UKOMNAS PDPA Exam

The UKOMNAS PDPA (Uji Kompetensi Nasional Peserta Didik Profesi Apoteker) is the mandatory national pharmacist licensure examination in Indonesia. Governed under the UKAI / UKMPPAI blueprint lineage, the exam evaluates graduating pharmacy professional students on clinical pharmacy, industrial manufacturing (CPOB), supply chain management (CDOB), and pharmaceutical law and ethics. Passing the exam confers the Sertifikat Kompetensi Profesi Apoteker, which is required to obtain the lifetime Surat Tanda Registrasi Apoteker (STRA) under UU No. 17 Tahun 2023.

Exam sponsor: Komite Nasional Uji Kompetensi Mahasiswa Bidang Kesehatan (Kemdiktisaintek) in collaboration with Kolegium Farmasi Indonesia (KFI) and Ikatan Apoteker Indonesia (IAI). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

A national CBT and OSCE are confirmed. This bank covers knowledge and clinical reasoning in four-option MCQ form and does not simulate compounding, counseling, prescription-review, manufacturing, or other performance tasks.

Time Limit

Not published in the official sources reviewed.

Passing Score

Not published in the official sources reviewed.

Exam / Certification Fees

Not published in the official sources reviewed.

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Not published in the official sources reviewed.. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

40 of 100 practice questions

Praktik Farmasi Klinis & Komunitas (Clinical & Community Pharmacy)

Pharmacotherapy of major organ systems (cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, infectious diseases, gastroenterology, neurology/psychiatry, oncology), clinical pharmacokinetics and therapeutic drug monitoring (vancomycin, aminoglycosides, phenytoin), drug interactions, adverse drug reaction reporting (MESO/BPOM Yellow Form), TPN and sterile admixture compatibility, and dose adjustments in renal impairment and special populations.

25 of 100 practice questions

Farmasi Industri & Manufaktur (Industrial Pharmacy & Quality Assurance)

CPOB / cGMP cleanroom environmental classifications (Grades A to D, laminar airflow, HVAC, differential pressure), preformulation and excipients, solid dosage form manufacturing (granulation methods, compression defects like capping and picking, disintegration, dissolution S1/S2 criteria), liquid and semi-solid formulation (suspensions, emulsions, HLB, ointment bases), terminal moist heat and dry heat depyrogenation, analytical method validation (ICH Q2), stability testing under ASEAN Climatic Zone IVb, and cleaning/process validation.

20 of 100 practice questions

Distribusi, Manajemen Rantai Pasok & Regulasi (Distribution & Supply Chain)

CDOB / Good Distribution Practice standards, temperature-controlled storage and cold chain management (2-8°C, freeze-sensitive vaccines, shake test, temperature excursions), warehouse layout, FEFO vs FIFO inventory rotation, quantitative inventory calculations (EOQ, safety stock, ROP), ABC-VEN matrix analysis for formulary optimization, procurement planning (consumption vs morbidity methods), and non-conforming goods quarantine and recall management.

15 of 100 practice questions

Hukum, Etika Kefarmasian & Keselamatan Pasien (Law, Ethics & Patient Safety)

UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 tentang Kesehatan and current registration and practice-permit rules, controlled substances regulations (narkotika, psikotropika, prekursor, and BPOM Obat-Obat Tertentu / OOT rules), current lawful procurement and recordkeeping, responsible self-care and referral, Permenkes 73/2016 pharmacy service standards, Indonesian Pharmacist Code of Ethics, and patient safety protocols (High-Alert medications, LASA/NORUM Tall Man lettering, and NCC MERP medication error taxonomy).

Preparing for the UKOMNAS PDPA Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Not published in the official sources reviewed.
  • Assessment: A national CBT and OSCE are confirmed. This bank covers knowledge and clinical reasoning in four-option MCQ form and does not simulate compounding, counseling, prescription-review, manufacturing, or other performance tasks.
  • Time limit: Not published in the official sources reviewed.
  • Exam / certification fees: Not published in the official sources reviewed. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

UKOMNAS PDPA: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master guideline-directed pharmacotherapy for high-yield disease states: hypertension (PERKI/JNC8), type 2 diabetes (PERKENI), tuberculosis (2HRZE national DOTS protocols), and malaria (DHP + primaquine).
2Memorize adverse drug reactions and their management: ethambutol optic neuritis, isoniazid pyridoxine-preventable neuropathy, rifampicin CYP3A4 enzyme induction, and carbamazepine HLA-B*1502 SJS/TEN screening.
3Understand therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) principles: non-linear Michaelis-Menten kinetics for phenytoin, AUC24/MIC targets (400-600) for vancomycin, and concentration-dependent peak/MIC optimization for aminoglycosides.
4Know CPOB cleanroom specifications by heart: Grade A laminar airflow velocity (0.36-0.54 m/s), particle limits (3,520 particles/m3 >= 0.5 um), and differential pressure (10-15 Pa).
5Learn tablet manufacturing compression defects: capping/lamination causes and solutions, sticking/picking causes, friability limits (< 1.0%), and dissolution S1/S2 compendial acceptance criteria.
6Review ASEAN Climatic Zone IVb stability testing conditions: 30°C ± 2°C / 75% RH ± 5% RH for real-time long-term testing, and 40°C ± 2°C / 75% RH ± 5% RH for accelerated testing.
7Practice inventory management math: Economic Order Quantity (EOQ), Safety Stock (SS), Reorder Point (ROP), Inventory Turnover Ratio (TOR), and the Consumption procurement equation.
8Review current Indonesian pharmacy law: UU 17/2023 registration and practice licensing, current narcotics and psychotropics procurement and recordkeeping, SIPNAP reporting, BPOM OOT supervision, and clinically responsible self-care and referral.
9Study patient safety protocols: banning concentrated electrolytes (KCl 7.46%) from general ward floor stock, Tall Man lettering for LASA drugs, and the NCC MERP medication error taxonomy.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is UKOMNAS PDPA and who must take it?

UKOMNAS PDPA (Uji Kompetensi Nasional Peserta Didik Profesi Apoteker) is the official national exit and licensure examination for graduates and candidates of the Apoteker Professional Education Program (PSPPA) across all Indonesian universities. Passing both the CBT theory examination and the OSCE practical examination is mandatory to receive the Sertifikat Profesi Apoteker and to register for the Surat Tanda Registrasi Apoteker (STRA).

How is the CBT examination structured?

Current 2026 sources confirm a CBT, but the official item count, option count, timing, scoring rules and current domain weights were not established by the primary sources reviewed. This practice bank uses 40 clinical and community, 25 industrial, 20 supply-chain, and 15 law and ethics questions; those are practice-bank proportions, not claimed official exam weights.

What is the passing standard for UKOMNAS PDPA?

The current passing threshold and standard-setting method were not established by the official sources reviewed. Candidates should confirm the sitting-specific rule through the current Kolegium Farmasi registration process.

How did UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 change Apoteker licensing in Indonesia?

UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 changed health-worker registration and practice licensing, including lifetime registration certificates under the current framework. Candidates should use current Konsil Kesehatan Indonesia and Ministry of Health guidance for STRA and SIPA administration rather than older KTKI terminology.

What is tested in the OSCE component?

Current 2026 sources confirm an OSCE component. The official station count, timing, scoring rules and detailed task mix were not established by the primary sources reviewed, so this MCQ bank should not be used as a substitute for practical preparation.

What are DOWA regulations in Indonesian community pharmacy?

DOWA is a historical Indonesian framework for limited pharmacist supply of designated medicines without a new prescription. For current practice, pharmacists must apply the latest national and local rules, screen for contraindications and alarm symptoms, document care, and refer when continued supply is not safe; old list quantities should not be treated as a complete current rulebook.

Is this OpenExamPrep practice bank an official UKOMNAS PDPA test?

No. This practice bank is an independent English-language four-option MCQ study resource created by OpenExamPrep for pharmaceutical knowledge, clinical judgment, and regulatory-principle review. It is not an official translation, testing simulation, OSCE substitute, endorsement, or affiliated resource of Kemdiktisaintek, Kolegium Farmasi Indonesia, or IAI.