Free Practice Questions for UKOMNAS Ners

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Key Facts: UKOMNAS Ners Exam

CBT

Official dual assessment components

ukomnakes.kemdiktisaintek.go.id

Lifetime

STR validity under UU No. 17 Tahun 2023

UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 tentang Kesehatan

AIPNI / PPNI

Indonesian Professional Nurse Association & Academic Association

aipni-ainec.org

3S Taxonomy

National clinical documentation standard (SDKI, SLKI, SIKI)

Standar Praktik Keperawatan Indonesia

UKOMNAS Ners tests professional nursing candidates across medical-surgical, emergency, pediatric, maternal, and psychiatric nursing. This is an independent 90-question English-language MCQ practice bank by OpenExamPrep.

Sample UKOMNAS Ners Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the UKOMNAS Ners exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 90+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male is admitted to the cardiac care unit with crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw that started 2 hours ago. An urgent 12-lead ECG reveals ST-segment elevation of 3 mm in leads II, III, and aVF. His blood pressure is 88/56 mmHg, heart rate is 52 bpm, and SpO2 is 97% on ambient air. Which nursing intervention is contraindicated in this clinical scenario?

A.Administering intravenous normal saline bolus under close monitoring

B.Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (ISDN) 5 mg

C.Administering a chewable loading dose of aspirin 300 mg

D.Establishing dual large-bore peripheral venous access

Explanation: ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an acute inferior myocardial infarction, which frequently involves the right ventricle. Right ventricular infarction impairs right-sided filling, making cardiac output strictly preload-dependent. Administering vasodilators such as nitroglycerin (isosorbide dinitrate) reduces venous return (preload) and can precipitate severe, refractory hypotension and cardiogenic shock. Therefore, nitrates are strictly contraindicated when inferior/RV infarction is present and systolic blood pressure is <90 mmHg.

2A 64-year-old female with chronic heart failure presents to the medical ward with acute respiratory distress, severe orthopnea, and cough productive of pink, frothy sputum. Physical examination reveals bilateral coarse crackles throughout both lung fields, jugular venous distension (JVD) at 5+4 cm H2O, blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg, pulse rate of 118 bpm, and respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min with SpO2 of 84% on room air. According to Indonesian Nursing Intervention Standards (SIKI: Manajemen Edema Paru), what is the immediate priority nursing action?

A.Perform endotracheal suctioning and administer oral digoxin 0.25 mg

B.Place the patient in a supine position with legs elevated 45 degrees

C.Place the patient in high Fowler's position and administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreathing mask

D.Administer a rapid 500 mL normal saline intravenous bolus

Explanation: The clinical presentation (pink frothy sputum, bilateral coarse crackles, severe orthopnea, hypoxemia, hypertension) confirms acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The immediate nursing priority per SIKI (Manajemen Edema Paru / Dukungan Ventilasi) is positioning the patient in high Fowler's position (90 degrees) with legs dependent if possible, which reduces venous return (preload) to the failing heart and maximizes thoracic expansion, alongside delivering high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask (NRM) or non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (CPAP/BiPAP) to treat critical hypoxemia.

3A 68-year-old male with a 20-year history of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD / PPOK) is admitted with lethargy and increased dyspnea. Arterial blood gas (ABG / AGD) analysis reveals: pH 7.28, PaCO2 68 mmHg, PaO2 55 mmHg, HCO3- 32 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the correct interpretation of these blood gas results?

A.Partially compensated respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxemia

B.Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis with severe hypoxemia

C.Uncompensated respiratory acidosis with normal oxygenation

D.Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis

Explanation: Interpreting the arterial blood gas step-by-step: 1) pH 7.28 is acidic (<7.35 = acidosis); 2) PaCO2 68 mmHg is markedly elevated (>45 mmHg = respiratory acidosis); 3) HCO3- 32 mEq/L is elevated (>26 mEq/L = renal metabolic compensation); 4) Because pH remains abnormal (acidic) while HCO3- has begun to compensate by retaining bicarbonate, this represents partially compensated respiratory acidosis; 5) PaO2 55 mmHg indicates moderate hypoxemia (normal 80–100 mmHg).

4A 54-year-old mechanically ventilated male in the intensive care unit suddenly triggers the ventilator's high peak airway pressure alarm. The nurse observes patient agitation, decreased chest wall expansion on the left side, trachea deviated to the right, absent breath sounds on the left hemithorax, and acute hypotension (BP 76/40 mmHg, HR 138 bpm). Which life-threatening complication must the nurse immediately identify and prepare to decompress?

A.Endotracheal tube mainstem intubation of the right bronchus

B.Massive pulmonary thromboembolism

C.Left-sided tension pneumothorax

D.Severe ventilator-associated bronchospasm

Explanation: Sudden unilateral absent breath sounds, contralateral tracheal deviation, high airway pressure, and obstructive shock in a ventilated patient indicate tension pneumothorax. The team should decompress immediately without waiting for imaging and then place definitive pleural drainage. Current emergency guidance often favors a 4th- or 5th-interspace lateral site for needle decompression, or finger thoracostomy by appropriately trained clinicians, under local protocol.

5A 56-year-old male with End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD / GGK stadium 5) missed two consecutive hemodialysis sessions. He presents with profound muscular weakness, paresthesia, and bradycardia. The cardiac monitor displays tall, peaked, tent-like T waves with widening of the QRS complex and prolonged PR interval. Serum potassium is reported at 7.4 mEq/L. Which medication must the nurse administer FIRST to protect the myocardium from fatal dysrhythmias?

A.Intravenous calcium gluconate 10% (10 mL over 2–5 minutes)

B.Intravenous regular insulin 10 units with 50 mL of 50% dextrose (D50)

C.Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) 30 grams

D.Inhaled salbutamol nebulization 10–20 mg

Explanation: In severe hyperkalemia (>6.5 mEq/L) accompanied by ECG abnormalities (peaked T waves, QRS widening), the immediate, life-saving first step is administering IV calcium gluconate (10% 10 mL over 2–5 minutes). Calcium does not lower serum potassium levels, but it directly antagonizes the cardiotoxic membrane-depolarizing effects of hyperkalemia, stabilizing the cardiac myocyte resting membrane potential within 1–3 minutes to prevent ventricular fibrillation and asystole.

6A 62-year-old female is admitted to the stroke unit 2 hours after acute onset of right-sided hemiplegia and expressive aphasia. A non-contrast head CT scan rules out intracranial hemorrhage, and intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA / alteplase) infusion is completed. According to national stroke nursing protocols, which post-thrombolysis parameter requires the most vigilant monitoring and immediate intervention?

A.Maintaining blood pressure strictly below 180/105 mmHg and monitoring for sudden severe headache or acute neurological decline

B.Initiating subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin within 6 hours of alteplase completion

C.Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter and nasogastric tube immediately post-infusion

D.Maintaining blood glucose levels below 70 mg/dL through aggressive insulin administration

Explanation: Following intravenous rtPA (alteplase) administration, the most devastating complication is symptomatic secondary intracranial hemorrhage (sICH). Guidelines mandate maintaining blood pressure strictly <180/105 mmHg (frequently checking BP every 15 min for 2 hours, then every 30 min for 6 hours, then hourly for 16 hours) and performing serial neurological assessments using NIHSS. Any sudden headache, nausea/vomiting, severe acute hypertension, or neurological deterioration warrants immediate cessation of any antithrombotic therapy and urgent non-contrast CT.

7A nurse is caring for a patient who had a left lobectomy 24 hours ago and has a three-chamber water seal chest drainage system (WSD). During the hourly assessment, the nurse notices vigorous, continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What is the clinical significance of this finding, and what should the nurse do first?

A.This is a normal finding indicating that the lung has fully re-expanded

B.The suction control regulator is set too high; the suction wall regulator must be turned down

C.There is an air leak in the system; the nurse should inspect the tubing and connections starting from the insertion site

D.The chest tube is occluded by fibrin clots; the nurse should vigorously strip the tube towards the drainage chamber

Explanation: In a three-chamber WSD system, intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber during expiration or coughing is expected while an air leak resolves. However, constant, vigorous bubbling indicates an active air leak, either from the patient's pleura (bronchopleural fistula or unrepaired lung tear) or from a loose connection/crack along the external tubing circuit. The nurse must systematically inspect the insertion site dressing, all tubing junctions, and connections to locate and seal the air leak.

8While ambulating near the bed, a postoperative patient with a thoracostomy chest tube (WSD) accidentally snags the drainage unit, causing the tubing to disconnect completely from the collection canister. What is the nurse's immediate emergency action?

A.Submerge the distal end of the chest tube 2 to 4 cm into a bottle of sterile saline or water

B.Clamp the chest tube tightly close to the chest wall with two Kelly forceps and leave it clamped indefinitely

C.Immediately pull the chest tube out from the patient's thoracic cavity to avoid contamination

D.Cover the distal open tubing with sterile dry gauze and wait for the thoracic surgeon

Explanation: If the chest tube disconnects from the drainage system, atmospheric air can enter the pleural cavity through the open tube, converting the space into a dangerous open pneumothorax. The immediate priority is to submerge the distal open tip of the chest tube 2 to 4 cm into a bottle of sterile water or saline. This instantly restores an emergency water seal, allowing air to escape during expiration while preventing atmospheric air from being sucked into the pleural cavity during inspiration.

9A 40-year-old male weighing 60 kg arrives at the emergency department 2 hours after sustaining deep partial-thickness burns covering his entire anterior torso (18%) and both entire upper extremities (18%, 9% each). Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burned is calculated at 36%. Using the Baxter / Parkland formula (4 mL x kg x % TBSA), what is the total fluid volume of Lactated Ringer's required in the first 8 hours post-burn?

A.2,160 mL

B.4,320 mL

C.8,640 mL

D.1,080 mL

Explanation: The Baxter/Parkland formula calculates total fluid for the first 24 hours: 4 mL x weight (kg) x % TBSA burned = 4 x 60 x 36 = 8,640 mL of Lactated Ringer's. Half of this total 24-hour volume (50% = 4,320 mL) must be administered during the first 8 hours calculated from the time of burn injury, and the remaining 4,320 mL is infused over the subsequent 16 hours.

10A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with agonizing epigastric pain that radiates to his mid-back, accompanied by persistent vomiting. On assessment, he assumes a fetal knee-to-chest position for relief. Serum amylase and lipase are elevated fivefold above normal. Which collaborative nursing action is fundamental during the acute phase of this condition?

A.Administering a high-protein, high-fat enteral nutritional formula via oral feeding tube

B.Placing hot water compresses directly over the epigastrium to ease abdominal muscle spasms

C.Maintaining strict NPO (nil per os) status, administering intravenous crystalloid hydration, and placing a nasogastric tube if ileus or severe vomiting occurs

D.Administering intramuscular morphine sulfate every 2 hours without intravenous access

Explanation: In acute pancreatitis, digestive enzyme autodigestion of pancreatic parenchyma is aggravated by gastric and duodenal stimulation. Maintaining strict NPO (nothing by mouth) rests the pancreas and suppresses pancreatic enzyme secretion. Vigorous intravenous hydration (preferably Lactated Ringer's) is crucial to counteract massive third-space retroperitoneal fluid sequestration, and nasogastric decompression is indicated for severe vomiting or paralytic ileus.

About the UKOMNAS Ners Exam

UKOMNAS Ners is the mandatory national exit examination for professional nursing students (Profesi Ners) in Indonesia, required for graduation and licensing as a registered professional nurse (Ners).

Exam sponsor: Komite Nasional Uji Kompetensi Mahasiswa Bidang Kesehatan. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

The examination evaluates diagnostic reasoning (SDKI), outcome identification (SLKI), and evidence-based therapeutic interventions (SIKI) across complex clinical scenarios.

Time Limit

Not published in official sources reviewed.

Passing Score

Not published in official sources reviewed.

Exam / Certification Fees

Not published in official sources reviewed.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

26 of 90 practice questions

Keperawatan Medikal Bedah / KMB (Medical-Surgical Nursing)

Acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, respiratory failure, mechanical ventilation, diabetic ketoacidosis, stroke management, fluid-electrolyte therapy, and perioperative care.

15 of 90 practice questions

Keperawatan Gawat Darurat, Bencana & Kritis / GADAR (Emergency & Critical Care)

Advanced resuscitation algorithms, airway management, shock differentiation, emergency thoracostomy (WSD) care, trauma stabilization, and disaster triage.

13 of 90 practice questions

Keperawatan Maternitas (Maternity Nursing)

Preeclampsia/eclampsia protocol (MgSO4 administration), postpartum hemorrhage management, active third stage of labor, high-risk pregnancy, and reproductive health.

13 of 90 practice questions

Keperawatan Anak (Pediatric Nursing)

Neonatal resuscitation, congenital anomalies, dengue shock syndrome, pediatric fluid resuscitation, phototherapy, and developmental screening.

9 of 90 practice questions

Keperawatan Jiwa (Psychiatric Nursing)

Therapeutic nurse-patient relationship, implementation strategies (SP) for hallucinations, violent behavior, depression with suicide risk, and psychopharmacology.

9 of 90 practice questions

Keperawatan Komunitas, Keluarga & Gerontik (Community, Family & Geriatric)

Community health assessment, family empowerment for chronic disease, elderly mobility, pressure injury prevention, and home palliative care.

5 of 90 practice questions

Manajemen Keperawatan & Etika Legal (Nursing Management & Ethics)

Patient care delivery models, nursing staff calculation formulas (Douglas), patient safety goals (SKP), incident reporting, ethical dilemmas, and UU No. 17/2023.

Preparing for the UKOMNAS Ners Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Not published in official sources reviewed.
Assessment: The examination evaluates diagnostic reasoning (SDKI), outcome identification (SLKI), and evidence-based therapeutic interventions (SIKI) across complex clinical scenarios.
Time limit: Not published in official sources reviewed.
Exam / certification fees: Not published in official sources reviewed. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 90 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
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UKOMNAS Ners: Suggested Study Strategy

1Follow the standard prioritization framework in vignettes: Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC) first, followed by urgent medical interventions.

2Know the standard magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) loading dose (4 grams IV over 15-20 min) and maintenance infusion (1-2 g/hour) for severe preeclampsia, along with toxicity antidotes (calcium gluconate).

3Understand the calculation of nurse staffing needs based on patient dependency levels using Douglas's criteria.

4Review the core clinical indicators of dengue hemorrhagic fever progression to dengue shock syndrome (narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, cold extremities).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is UKOMNAS Ners?

UKOMNAS Ners is the national competency exit examination for students completing the professional nurse program (Pendidikan Profesi Ners) in Indonesia, required to earn the Ners degree and qualify for the STR Ners.

How does Profesi Ners differ from D3 Keperawatan?

Profesi Ners is a professional graduate qualification following a 4-year Bachelor of Nursing (S.Kep) plus 1 year of clinical internship, preparing independent clinical practitioners, leaders, and decision makers. D3 Keperawatan is a 3-year vocational program preparing bedside staff nurses.

What is the STR validity period under UU No. 17 Tahun 2023?

Under UU No. 17 Tahun 2023, the Nurse Registration Certificate (STR Ners) issued by Konsil Kesehatan Indonesia (KKI) is valid for life. The practice license (Surat Izin Praktik Perawat / SIPP) remains valid for 5 years and requires proof of ongoing professional development (SKP).

Does this practice bank simulate the official CBT platform?

No. This is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation for topic review. It is not an official translation and does not reproduce the Indonesian-language CBT platform or current operational items.