Free Practice Questions for UKOM D3 Kebidanan

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Key Facts: UKOM D3 Kebidanan Exam

CBT

Official exam delivery format

ukomnakes.kemdiktisaintek.go.id

Lifetime

STR validity under UU No. 17 Tahun 2023

UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 tentang Kesehatan

10T

Official Indonesian antenatal care service standard

Kemenkes RI Buku KIA

60 Steps

Standard Asuhan Persalinan Normal (APN) sequence

JNPK-KR / Kemenkes RI

The Indonesian national competency examination for D3 Midwifery is a CBT exit exam covering core maternal and neonatal care. This is an independent 84-question English-language MCQ practice bank by OpenExamPrep.

Sample UKOM D3 Kebidanan Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the UKOM D3 Kebidanan exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 84+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 23-year-old primigravida (G1P0A0) at 10 weeks of gestation visits the primary health center (Puskesmas) for her first antenatal care checkup. The midwife conducts integrated antenatal care in accordance with the Indonesian Ministry of Health (Kemenkes RI) 10T standard. Which of the following correctly lists standard components included in the official 10T antenatal protocol?

A.Weight and height measurement, blood pressure, nutritional status (LiLA), fundal height, fetal presentation/heart rate, tetanus screening/vaccination, iron tablets, laboratory tests, case management, and counseling

B.Routine pelvic x-ray pelvimetry, amniocentesis, daily cardiotocography, prophylactic bed rest, and maternal alpha-fetoprotein screening

C.Serum estriol measurement, quarterly ultrasound, routine glucose tolerance testing at 10 weeks, bed rest prescription, and mandatory induction planning

D.Weight measurement, biophysical profile scoring, routine pelvic exam at every visit, Doppler velocimetry, and prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotics

Explanation: The Indonesian standard for integrated Antenatal Care (ANC Terpadu) is defined by the 10T protocol: 1) Timbang berat badan dan ukur tinggi badan, 2) Ukur tekanan darah, 3) Nilai status gizi (ukur LiLA), 4) Ukur tinggi fundus uteri (TFU), 5) Tentukan presentasi janin dan hitung DJJ, 6) Skrining status imunisasi Tetanus dan berikan TT/Td bila diperlukan, 7) Beri tablet tambah darah (minimal 90 tablet selama kehamilan), 8) Periksa laboratorium rutin dan khusus (Hb, golongan darah, tripel eliminasi, protein urin), 9) Tata laksana kasus, and 10) Temu wicara/konseling. Routine x-ray pelvimetry, amniocentesis, and prophylactic bed rest are not standard components.

2A 26-year-old woman (G1P0A0) visits the Independent Midwife Practice (TPMB) to confirm her pregnancy. She states that the first day of her last menstrual period (Hari Pertama Haid Terakhir / HPHT) was June 10, 2025. Her menstrual cycle is regular at 28 days. Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated date of delivery (Hari Perkiraan Lahir / HPL)?

A.March 17, 2026

B.March 10, 2026

C.April 17, 2026

D.February 17, 2026

Explanation: According to Naegele's rule for women with a regular 28-day cycle whose HPHT occurs between April and December, the formula is: Date + 7, Month - 3, Year + 1. For HPHT June 10, 2025: Date: 10 + 7 = 17; Month: 6 - 3 = 3 (March); Year: 2025 + 1 = 2026. Therefore, the estimated date of delivery (HPL) is March 17, 2026.

3A 28-year-old pregnant woman (G2P1A0) comes for antenatal registration. She reports that her HPHT was February 18, 2025, with regular 28-day cycles. Applying Naegele's rule for last menstrual periods occurring in the first three months of the year (January to March), what is her estimated date of delivery (HPL)?

A.November 25, 2025

B.November 18, 2025

C.October 25, 2025

D.December 25, 2025

Explanation: For an HPHT occurring in January, February, or March, Naegele's rule uses the formula: Date + 7, Month + 9, Year stays the same (Year + 0). For HPHT February 18, 2025: Date: 18 + 7 = 25; Month: 2 + 9 = 11 (November); Year: 2025. Thus, her HPL is November 25, 2025.

4During an antenatal examination of a 32-week primigravida, the midwife stands facing the patient's head and places both hands on the lower pole of the uterus just above the symphysis pubis. The midwife grasps the presenting part between the thumb and fingers of one hand to determine what occupies the lower uterine segment and whether it can be mobilized. Which Leopold maneuver is the midwife performing?

A.Leopold III

B.Leopold I

C.Leopold II

D.Leopold IV

Explanation: Leopold III is performed by gripping the lower uterine pole above the symphysis pubis with one hand (thumb and four fingers) while facing the patient's head. Its purpose is to identify the fetal presenting part (head or breech) and assess whether it is still movable (ballottement positive, floating) or has entered the pelvic inlet. Leopold I assesses fundal height and contents; Leopold II identifies the fetal back and small parts; Leopold IV (facing patient's feet) determines how deeply the presenting part has descended into the pelvis (divergent vs convergent).

5A 25-year-old multigravida (G2P1A0) at 16 weeks of gestation presents for antenatal screening. Review of her health records confirms that she received TT1 and TT2 during her first pregnancy 2 years ago. According to the Indonesian standard Tetanus Toxoid (TT / Td) immunization schedule for women of childbearing age (WUS), which dose should she receive now and what is the duration of protection provided by that dose?

A.TT3 / Td3, which provides 5 years of protection against maternal and neonatal tetanus

B.TT1 / Td1, because immunization must restart from the beginning after a 2-year interval

C.TT4 / Td4, which provides 10 years of protection

D.TT5 / Td5, which provides lifelong protection (> 25 years)

Explanation: Tetanus toxoid immunization follows the cumulative lifelong schedule (prinsip seumur hidup) and is never restarted from zero. The schedule is: TT1 (initial contact, 0% protection), TT2 (4 weeks after TT1, 3 years protection), TT3 (6 months after TT2, 5 years protection), TT4 (1 year after TT3, 10 years protection), and TT5 (1 year after TT4, > 25 years / lifelong protection). Because she previously completed TT2, her next scheduled dose is TT3 (or Td3), which grants 5 years of protection against tetanus neonatorum.

6A 17-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks of gestation visits the village health post (Poskesdes). Her measured maternal height is 142 cm. The midwife applies the Poedji Rochjati Risk Scoring Card (Kartu Skor Poedji Rochjati / KSPR) to stratify her pregnancy risk. What is her total KSPR score and risk category?

A.Score 10, categorized as High Risk Pregnancy (Kehamilan Risiko Tinggi / KRT)

B.Score 2, categorized as Low Risk Pregnancy (Kehamilan Risiko Rendah / KRR)

C.Score 6, categorized as Low Risk Pregnancy (Kehamilan Risiko Rendah / KRR)

D.Score 16, categorized as Very High Risk Pregnancy (Kehamilan Risiko Sangat Tinggi / KRST)

Explanation: In the Poedji Rochjati scoring system: 1) Initial baseline score for every pregnant woman = 2; 2) Young primigravida age < 20 years (terlalu muda hamil) = score 4; 3) Short maternal stature < 145 cm (terlalu pendek) = score 4. Total score = 2 + 4 + 4 = 10. According to KSPR classification: Score 2 = Kehamilan Risiko Rendah (KRR); Score 6-10 = Kehamilan Risiko Tinggi (KRT); Score >= 12 = Kehamilan Risiko Sangat Tinggi (KRST). Therefore, her total score is 10, placing her in the KRT category.

7A 34-year-old pregnant woman (G4P2A1) at 34 weeks of gestation presents to the midwife. Her obstetric history reveals that her second delivery was performed by cesarean section due to cephalopelvic disproportion. According to the Poedji Rochjati scoring system, what is the score contribution of a prior cesarean scar (bekas operasi sesar) and what is the recommended delivery venue?

A.Score 8, placing her in Kehamilan Risiko Tinggi (KRT) with a total score of at least 10; planned delivery must be at a Hospital with surgical facilities (RS PONEK)

B.Score 2, placing her in Kehamilan Risiko Rendah (KRR); eligible for delivery at a standalone village birthing post (Polindes)

C.Score 4, placing her in Kehamilan Risiko Tinggi (KRT); planned delivery at a primary health center without surgical capacity

D.Score 12, placing her in Kehamilan Risiko Rendah (KRR); planned home delivery with a traditional birth attendant (dukun)

Explanation: On the Poedji Rochjati Risk Scoring Card (KSPR), a history of previous cesarean section (bekas operasi sesar) carries a high risk score of 8 in Group II (Ada Bahaya Potensial). Combined with the baseline score of 2, the total score is at least 10 (KRT). Because of the critical risk of uterine scar rupture during labor, national standards mandate that delivery planning (P4K) must direct this patient to a referral hospital equipped with comprehensive emergency obstetric care (RS PONEK) staffed by an obstetrician.

8An 8-week primigravida presents with severe persistent nausea and vomiting (> 10 times daily). Physical examination reveals dry oral mucosa, sunken eyes, skin turgor decreased, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 104 bpm, and an acetone odor on her breath. Urinalysis demonstrates ketones 2+. Which clinical stage of hyperemesis gravidarum is this patient experiencing?

A.Hyperemesis Gravidarum Grade II

B.Hyperemesis Gravidarum Grade I

C.Hyperemesis Gravidarum Grade III

D.Physiological morning sickness (emesis gravidarum)

Explanation: Hyperemesis gravidarum is classified into three grades: Grade I involves persistent vomiting, epigastric pain, weight loss, and mild dehydration without organ dysfunction. Grade II is characterized by marked dehydration, sunken eyes, dry tongue, tachycardia, hypotension, oliguria, positive urinary ketones, and a distinctive acetone odor (bau aseton) on the breath. Grade III is life-threatening, featuring somnolence/coma, jaundice, nystagmus, Wernicke's encephalopathy, and multi-organ failure. The patient displays hallmark signs of Grade II.

9A 30-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks of gestation visits the Puskesmas with persistent frontal headache and blurry vision. Her blood pressure is 165/110 mmHg on two occasions 4 hours apart, and a dipstick urinalysis shows proteinuria 2+. Which clinical diagnosis is most appropriate?

A.Severe Preeclampsia (Preeklampsia Berat / PEB)

B.Gestational Hypertension (Hipertensi Gestasional)

C.Chronic Hypertension (Hipertensi Kronis)

D.Superimposed Preeclampsia with Chronic Kidney Disease

Explanation: Severe Preeclampsia (Preeklampsia Berat / PEB) is diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation when blood pressure is systolic >= 160 mmHg and/or diastolic >= 110 mmHg accompanied by proteinuria (>= 2+ on dipstick) or signs of severe maternal organ compromise, such as persistent frontal headache, visual disturbances, epigastric/right upper quadrant pain, or pulmonary edema. Gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria and neurological symptoms; chronic hypertension precedes 20 weeks.

10A 32-year-old woman at 35 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with Severe Preeclampsia (PEB) at a Puskesmas PONED. The midwife prepares the standard pre-referral stabilization protocol with Magnesium Sulfate (MgSO4) to prevent eclamptic seizures. According to Indonesian national guidelines, what is the recommended intravenous loading dose of MgSO4?

A.4 grams of MgSO4 (10 mL of 40% solution diluted in 10 mL distilled water/saline) administered IV slowly over 5 to 10 minutes

B.10 grams of MgSO4 administered as a rapid intravenous bolus over 30 seconds

C.2 grams of MgSO4 administered subcutaneously into the abdominal wall

D.8 grams of MgSO4 given orally dissolved in warm water

Explanation: The standard Indonesian loading dose protocol for Magnesium Sulfate (MgSO4) in severe preeclampsia is 4 grams IV given slowly over 5 to 10 minutes (using 10 mL of 40% MgSO4 solution diluted 1:1 with normal saline or sterile water, or 20 mL of 20% solution). This is followed immediately by maintenance dosing: either an IV infusion of 1 g/hour in Ringer's Lactate or an intramuscular injection of 5 g of 40% MgSO4 into each buttock (total 10 g IM) before emergency transport to the referral hospital.

About the UKOM D3 Kebidanan Exam

UKOM D3 Kebidanan is the mandatory national exit examination for Diploma III Midwifery students in Indonesia. Passing is required to obtain the Sertifikat Kompetensi and the midwife Registration Certificate (STR Bidan) from Konsil Kesehatan Indonesia.

Exam sponsor: Komite Nasional Uji Kompetensi Mahasiswa Bidang Kesehatan / IBI / AIPKIND. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

The national CBT evaluates vocational midwifery knowledge and clinical reasoning across antenatal, intranatal, postnatal, newborn, and community care.

Time Limit

Not published in official sources reviewed.

Passing Score

Not published in official sources reviewed.

Exam / Certification Fees

Not published in official sources reviewed.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

22 of 84 practice questions

Asuhan Kebidanan Kehamilan (Antenatal Care / ANC)

Standard ANC 10T, gestational age and EDD calculation, Poedji Rochjati risk scoring, Buku KIA red flags, hyperemesis, preeclampsia/eclampsia, MgSO4, antepartum hemorrhage, and triple elimination.

23 of 84 practice questions

Asuhan Kebidanan Persalinan (Intranatal Care / INC)

Stages of labor, partograph alert and action lines, normal delivery care (APN 60 steps), active management of third stage (MAK III), perineal tears, atonia uteri, bimanual/aortic compression, and shoulder dystocia.

17 of 84 practice questions

Asuhan Kebidanan Nifas & Menyusui (Postnatal Care / PNC)

Uterine involution, lochia progression, KF visit schedule, early initiation of breastfeeding (IMD), lactation physiology, engorgement, mastitis, and postpartum family planning.

13 of 84 practice questions

Asuhan Kebidanan Bayi Baru Lahir, Neonatus & Balita

Immediate newborn thermal care, APGAR scoring, neonatal resuscitation, Vitamin K1 and HepB0 prophylaxis, Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) for BBLR, Kramer jaundice staging, and MTBS.

9 of 84 practice questions

Pelayanan Kebidanan Komunitas, Etika & Regulasi

BAKSOKU emergency referral standard, PONED vs PONEK, P4K birth planning, Maternal Perinatal Audit (AMP), Posyandu 5-table flow, UU No. 17 Tahun 2023, and informed consent.

Preparing for the UKOM D3 Kebidanan Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Not published in official sources reviewed.
Assessment: The national CBT evaluates vocational midwifery knowledge and clinical reasoning across antenatal, intranatal, postnatal, newborn, and community care.
Time limit: Not published in official sources reviewed.
Exam / certification fees: Not published in official sources reviewed. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 84 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
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UKOM D3 Kebidanan: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master the 60 steps of normal delivery care (APN) and active third-stage management (MAK III).

2Practice interpreting partographs, especially recognizing when cervical dilation crosses alert and action lines.

3Know the emergency dosage and toxicity monitoring for magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) in severe preeclampsia.

4Understand the BAKSOKU components for maternal-neonatal emergency referral preparation.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is UKOM D3 Kebidanan?

UKOM D3 Kebidanan is the national exit examination for students completing the Diploma III (D3) Midwifery program in Indonesia, mandatory for receiving the competency certificate and applying for the STR Bidan.

How does D3 Kebidanan differ from Profesi Bidan?

D3 Kebidanan is a 3-year vocational diploma program preparing mid-level clinical midwives, whereas Profesi Bidan is an advanced professional education pathway following an undergraduate degree. Both have distinct national exit examinations.

What is the STR validity period under UU No. 17 Tahun 2023?

Under UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 tentang Kesehatan, the Surat Tanda Registrasi (STR Bidan) is issued by Konsil Kesehatan Indonesia (KKI) with lifetime validity (seumur hidup), while the Surat Izin Praktik (SIPB) must be renewed every 5 years with SKP fulfillment.

Is this practice test an official Indonesian test?

No. This practice bank is an independent English-language study adaptation created by OpenExamPrep to support clinical reasoning and knowledge review. It is not affiliated with Kemdiktisaintek, Kemenkes, IBI, or AIPKIND.