Free Practice Questions for UKMPPD (UKNPDPD)

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Key Facts: UKMPPD (UKNPDPD) Exam

66.38%

MCQs-CBT pass mark (NBL) for the February 2026 national doctor competency exam

manajemenpdpd.kemdiktisaintek.go.id

64.93%

OSCE pass mark (NBL) for the February 2026 period

manajemenpdpd.kemdiktisaintek.go.id

3,669

Candidates passing the MCQs-CBT in the February 2026 period

manajemenpdpd.kemdiktisaintek.go.id

Exam periods in 2026: February, May, August and November

manajemenpdpd.kemdiktisaintek.go.id; Kolegium Dokter

UKNPDPD (formerly UKMPPD) is the national exit exam for Indonesian medical profession students, held in February, May, August and November 2026. Its MCQs-CBT and OSCE are passed separately; February 2026 pass marks were 66.38% and 64.93%, and a 2026 fee decree sets Rp 850,000 and Rp 1,000,000. This is independent UKMPPD practice by OpenExamPrep: an English-language MCQ study adaptation of the CBT's clinical reasoning, not an official translation or an OSCE simulation.

Sample UKMPPD (UKNPDPD) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the UKMPPD (UKNPDPD) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 104+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with sudden-onset right-sided hemiparesis and expressive aphasia that began 2 hours ago. His blood pressure is 165/95 mmHg, pulse is 82 bpm regular, and blood glucose is 128 mg/dL. An immediate non-contrast head CT scan reveals no acute intracranial hemorrhage or territorial hypoattenuation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A.Administer oral aspirin 325 mg immediately and admit to the general medical ward

B.Evaluate for intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA) administration within the 4.5-hour therapeutic window

C.Infuse intravenous mannitol 20% to prevent cerebral edema and herniation

D.Perform immediate emergent burr hole craniotomy for surgical decompression

Explanation: The patient presents with acute ischemic stroke within the 4.5-hour therapeutic window. In the absence of hemorrhage on non-contrast head CT and with eligible blood pressure (<185/110 mmHg), evaluation and administration of IV thrombolytic therapy with rtPA (alteplase 0.9 mg/kg, maximum 90 mg) is the standard of care to achieve reperfusion and reduce disability.

2A 24-year-old male presents with high fever, severe throbbing headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness for the past 24 hours. Physical examination reveals positive Brudzinski and Kernig signs. Lumbar puncture reveals cloudy cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with an opening pressure of 260 mmH2O, WBC count of 2,400/uL with 92% polymorphonuclear cells, protein of 280 mg/dL, and CSF-to-serum glucose ratio of 0.22. What is the most appropriate initial empirical pharmacological therapy?

A.Intravenous ceftriaxone 2 g every 12 hours plus intravenous vancomycin and adjunctive dexamethasone

B.Intravenous acyclovir 10 mg/kg every 8 hours with supportive antipyretic therapy

C.Oral rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol with pyridoxine

D.Intravenous amphotericin B plus oral flucytosine

Explanation: The CSF analysis (neutrophilic pleocytosis, markedly elevated protein, and low glucose ratio <0.4) confirms acute bacterial meningitis, most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae or Neisseria meningitidis in young adults. Initial empirical therapy requires high-dose IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone) plus vancomycin, with IV dexamethasone administered prior to or with the first dose of antibiotics to reduce neurological sequelae and hearing loss in pneumococcal meningitis.

3A 35-year-old woman wakes up with acute left facial weakness. On examination, she is unable to wrinkle her left forehead, cannot close her left eye completely, and has flattening of the left nasolabial fold with angle of the mouth drooping. Taste sensation on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is diminished. Sensation over the face is intact and limb motor strength is normal. What is the diagnosis and recommended first-line treatment if she presents within 72 hours of onset?

A.Lacunar stroke of the internal capsule; treat with oral clopidogrel 75 mg daily

B.Trigeminal neuralgia; treat with oral carbamazepine 200 mg twice daily

C.Bell's palsy (idiopathic facial paralysis); treat with oral prednisone 60 mg daily for 5 days with taper

D.Ramsay Hunt syndrome; treat with high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone pulse therapy alone

Explanation: Bell's palsy is an acute peripheral lower motor neuron lesion of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) affecting both the upper and lower face on the ipsilateral side (distinguishing it from an upper motor neuron stroke, which spares the forehead due to bilateral cortical innervation). When presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset, a 10-day course of oral corticosteroids (prednisone 60 mg/day for 5 days followed by a 5-day taper) significantly accelerates recovery of facial function, along with eye lubrication and tape protection.

4A 28-year-old corporate worker presents with recurrent headaches occurring 3 to 4 times a week for the past 2 months. She describes the headache as a dull, constant, non-pulsating tightness encircling her head 'like a tight band or heavy hat.' There is no nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia, and routine physical activity such as walking up stairs does not aggravate the headache. Physical and neurological examinations are entirely normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Migraine without aura

B.Cluster headache

C.Increased intracranial pressure due to intracranial mass

D.Tension-type headache

Explanation: Tension-type headache (TTH) is the most common primary headache disorder. Diagnostic criteria require at least two of the following characteristics: bilateral location, pressing/tightening (non-pulsating) quality, mild-to-moderate intensity, and not aggravated by routine physical activity. In addition, there must be no nausea or vomiting, and at most one of photophobia or phonophobia.

5A 19-year-old man with a known history of epilepsy is brought to the primary emergency clinic actively seizing with generalized tonic-clonic jerking. The family reports that the seizure started 12 minutes ago and has been continuous without any interval of recovery of consciousness. The airway is secured and high-flow oxygen is provided. What is the immediate first-line pharmacological treatment of choice?

A.Intravenous phenytoin infusion at 18 mg/kg at a rate of 50 mg/min

B.Intravenous diazepam 10 mg slow bolus over 2 minutes (or intravenous lorazepam 4 mg)

C.Intravenous sodium thiopental 5 mg/kg bolus

D.Oral carbamazepine 400 mg crushed via nasogastric tube

Explanation: This patient is in convulsive status epilepticus (defined as continuous seizure activity lasting >=5 minutes or >=2 distinct seizures without full recovery of consciousness between episodes). The initial first-line pharmacological emergent therapy is an intravenous benzodiazepine: IV diazepam 10 mg slow bolus (repeated once at 5-10 minutes if seizures continue) or IV lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg (typically 4 mg). If seizures persist after benzodiazepines, second-line IV non-sedating antiepileptics (such as phenytoin/fosphenytoin, levetiracetam, or valproate) are loaded.

6A 68-year-old man presents with progressive movement difficulties over the past year. His family notices that his walking has become slow with small shuffling steps and reduced arm swing. Examination reveals an asymmetrical resting tremor in his right hand resembling 'pill-rolling' that dampens during purposeful voluntary movement, lead-pipe and cogwheel rigidity in the wrists, and difficulty initiating movement (bradykinesia). Which neuroanatomical structure and neurotransmitter deficiency are primarily implicated in this disorder?

A.Substantia nigra pars compacta and dopamine deficiency

B.Caudate nucleus and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) deficiency

C.Subthalamic nucleus and glutamate hyperactivity

D.Nucleus basalis of Meynert and acetylcholine deficiency

Explanation: The clinical triad of resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity, and bradykinesia with postural instability defines idiopathic Parkinson's disease. The underlying neuropathology is progressive degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta projecting to the striatum, leading to disruption of the basal ganglia motor control circuitry.

7A 56-year-old woman presents with severe, excruciating, electric-shock-like pain on the right side of her cheek and jaw lasting several seconds at a time. The attacks occur multiple times daily and are triggered by light touch, brushing her teeth, chewing, or even cold wind blowing against her face. Neurological examination reveals normal facial motor strength, symmetric facial sensation, and normal corneal reflexes. What is the first-line medication of choice for long-term medical management of this condition?

A.Paracetamol 500 mg combined with codeine

B.Ergotamine tartrate 1 mg orally

C.Carbamazepine 100 to 200 mg orally twice daily, titrated upward

D.Sumatriptan 50 mg orally at the onset of pain

Explanation: This patient presents with classic trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) affecting the maxillary (V2) or mandibular (V3) branch of cranial nerve V. The first-line medical therapy with established high efficacy is carbamazepine (initial dose 100-200 mg bid, titrated to 400-1200 mg/day) or oxcarbazepine, which stabilize hyperexcitable neuronal membranes by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels.

8A 45-year-old seamstress presents with tingling, numbness, and burning pain in her right thumb, index, middle finger, and the radial half of her ring finger for the past 4 months. The symptoms wake her up at night, and she often shakes her hand to obtain relief. Examination reveals positive Phalen's test and Tinel's sign at the wrist, along with mild thenar muscle atrophy. Which nerve is compressed and what is the anatomical structure forming the roof of the affected canal?

A.Ulnar nerve compressed under the arcade of Struthers

B.Radial nerve compressed beneath the supinator muscle (arcade of Frohse)

C.Musculocutaneous nerve compressed beneath the coracobrachialis muscle

D.Median nerve compressed beneath the flexor retinaculum (transverse carpal ligament)

Explanation: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) results from entrapment neuropathy of the median nerve as it courses through the osteofibrous carpal tunnel beneath the flexor retinaculum (transverse carpal ligament). Sensation to the palmar surface of the lateral 3.5 digits is impaired, thenar muscles undergo weakness and atrophy, and provocative tests (Phalen wrist flexion for 60 seconds, Tinel tapping) reproduce paresthesias.

9A 26-year-old woman complains of fluctuating drooping of her left upper eyelid (ptosis) and intermittent double vision (diplopia) over the past 3 months. She notes that her symptoms are minimal upon waking in the morning but worsen significantly towards the evening or after prolonged reading. She also experiences difficulty chewing tough meat towards the end of meals. Neurological examination confirms fatigable ptosis upon sustained upward gaze for 60 seconds. What is the fundamental pathophysiology underlying this condition?

A.Autoantibodies directed against presynaptic P/Q-type voltage-gated calcium channels

B.Autoantibodies directed against postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction

C.Autoimmune demyelination of the central nervous system white matter

D.Degeneration of lower motor neurons in the anterior horns of the spinal cord

Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder characterized by autoantibodies directed against postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (anti-AChR antibodies) or muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) at the neuromuscular junction. This antibody binding leads to receptor internalization, complement-mediated destruction of junctional folds, and reduced end-plate potentials, resulting in the pathognomonic fluctuating, fatigable skeletal muscle weakness that worsens with repetitive activity and improves with rest.

10A 22-year-old motorcyclist is struck on the temporal area of his head during a traffic accident. He briefly lost consciousness for 2 minutes, then awakened, spoke coherently, and felt fine for approximately 2 hours (the 'lucid interval'). However, while in the emergency observation unit, he rapidly develops a severe headache, projectile vomiting, progressive somnolence, right pupillary dilation with sluggish light reflex, and left-sided hemiparesis. Non-contrast head CT demonstrates a hyperdense, biconvex (lenticular) lesion adjacent to the right temporoparietal inner table that does not cross cranial suture lines. What is the source of bleeding?

A.Laceration of the middle meningeal artery

B.Rupture of bridging cortical veins entering the superior sagittal sinus

C.Rupture of a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis

D.Traumatic laceration of the anterior cerebral artery

Explanation: The clinical presentation of head trauma followed by a classic lucid interval and rapid secondary neurological deterioration, combined with a biconvex/lentiform hyperdense extra-axial mass on CT that is limited by cranial sutures, is diagnostic of an acute epidural (extradural) hematoma. This condition typically results from a fracture of the pterion/squamous temporal bone lacerating the middle meningeal artery or its branches.

About the UKMPPD (UKNPDPD) Exam

UKNPDPD, still widely called UKMPPD, is Indonesia's national competency exam for professional doctor program students. Candidates must pass both an MCQs-CBT and an OSCE based on the Standar Kompetensi Dokter Indonesia before receiving their professional and competency certificates and registering to practice.

Exam sponsor: Tim Ad Hoc UKNPDPD (Kolegium Dokter and Kemdiktisaintek Directorate General of Higher Education). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Two components, each passed separately: an MCQs-CBT of single-best-answer clinical vignettes written to the Standar Kompetensi Dokter Indonesia, and an OSCE of clinical skills stations. In 2026 the sittings were organized by a Tim Ad Hoc involving Kolegium Dokter and Kemdiktisaintek's Directorate General of Higher Education. This bank groups questions by the 12 SKDI body systems plus non-system topics (ethics, medicolegal, and community medicine).

Time Limit

Not published; February 2026 period: OSCE 28 February-2 March, MCQs-CBT 8 March 2026

Passing Score

NBL by modified Angoff standard setting, set annually: 66.38% (MCQs-CBT) and 64.93% (OSCE) in February 2026

Exam / Certification Fees

Rp 850,000 (MCQs-CBT); Rp 1,000,000 (OSCE), per a Tim Ad Hoc fee decree

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

10 of 104 practice questions

Nervous System (Sistem Saraf)

Stroke, meningitis, cranial nerve disorders, headache, seizures, movement disorders, neuropathy, myasthenia gravis, and head injury.

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Psychiatry (Psikiatri)

Psychotic, mood, anxiety and somatic symptom disorders, and delirium versus dementia.

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Sense Organs: Eye and ENT (Sistem Indera)

Glaucoma, conjunctivitis, trachoma, corneal ulcer, cataract, pterygium, otitis, epistaxis, rhinosinusitis, tonsillitis, and peritonsillar abscess.

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Respiratory System (Sistem Respirasi)

Tuberculosis, community-acquired pneumonia, asthma, COPD, tension pneumothorax, and pleural effusion.

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Cardiovascular System (Sistem Kardiovaskular)

STEMI, hypertension, acute heart failure, infective endocarditis, supraventricular tachycardia, and deep vein thrombosis.

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Gastrointestinal, Hepatobiliary and Pancreas (Sistem Gastrointestinal)

Typhoid, appendicitis, GERD, peptic ulcer, pancreatitis, viral hepatitis, cirrhosis, liver abscess, hernia, and childhood dehydration.

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Kidney and Urinary Tract (Sistem Ginjal dan Saluran Kemih)

Glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome, acute kidney injury, pyelonephritis, and urolithiasis.

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Reproductive System (Sistem Reproduksi)

Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, antepartum and postpartum hemorrhage, early pregnancy loss, molar pregnancy, labor monitoring, mastitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and hyperemesis.

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Endocrine, Metabolic and Nutrition (Sistem Endokrin dan Metabolik)

Diabetes and diabetic ketoacidosis, thyroid disease, and Cushing syndrome.

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Hematology and Immunology (Sistem Hematologi dan Imunologi)

Anemias, thalassemia, immune thrombocytopenia, hemophilia, and dengue shock syndrome.

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Musculoskeletal System (Sistem Muskuloskeletal)

Fracture first aid, compartment syndrome, septic arthritis, gout, and osteoarthritis.

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Integumentary System (Sistem Integumen)

Parasitic, fungal, bacterial and viral skin infections, leprosy, atopic dermatitis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and acne.

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Non-System Topics: Ethics, Medicolegal and Community Medicine

Ethics and informed refusal, visum et repertum, and core epidemiology.

Preparing for the UKMPPD (UKNPDPD) Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: NBL by modified Angoff standard setting, set annually: 66.38% (MCQs-CBT) and 64.93% (OSCE) in February 2026
Assessment: Two components, each passed separately: an MCQs-CBT of single-best-answer clinical vignettes written to the Standar Kompetensi Dokter Indonesia, and an OSCE of clinical skills stations. In 2026 the sittings were organized by a Tim Ad Hoc involving Kolegium Dokter and Kemdiktisaintek's Directorate General of Higher Education. This bank groups questions by the 12 SKDI body systems plus non-system topics (ethics, medicolegal, and community medicine).
Time limit: Not published; February 2026 period: OSCE 28 February-2 March, MCQs-CBT 8 March 2026
Exam / certification fees: Rp 850,000 (MCQs-CBT); Rp 1,000,000 (OSCE), per a Tim Ad Hoc fee decree Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 104 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

UKMPPD (UKNPDPD): Suggested Study Strategy

1Study by SKDI body system, giving the most time to the high-volume areas in this bank: sense organs, reproductive health, gastrointestinal disease, the nervous system and skin.

2Practice single-best-answer vignettes under time pressure, reading the final question line first so you know which decision is being tested.

3Learn Indonesian national guidance where it differs from international sources, such as the primary-care guideline for typhoid, the 2RHZE/4RH tuberculosis regimen, and uniform MDT for leprosy.

4Do not skip non-system topics: informed consent and refusal, visum et repertum, and basic epidemiology calculations.

5Prepare separately for the OSCE with supervised hands-on practice, because multiple-choice questions cannot certify examination or procedural skills.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is UKNPDPD (UKMPPD)?

UKNPDPD, or Uji Kompetensi Nasional Peserta Didik Profesi Dokter, is the national competency exam that Indonesian professional doctor program students must pass. The name replaced UKMPPD from the November 2025 period, and UKMPPD itself succeeded UKDI from August 2014. The exam has an MCQs-CBT of clinical vignettes and an OSCE, and passing both leads to the professional and competency certificates needed for registration.

How is the pass mark (NBL) set?

The national committee sets the Nilai Batas Lulus once a year in February by modified Angoff standard setting, and it applies for that year. A candidate's MCQs-CBT score is the percentage of all items answered correctly after item analysis and answer-key review. For February 2026 the NBL was 66.38% for the MCQs-CBT and 64.93% for the OSCE.

When is the exam held in 2026, and how do candidates register?

There are four periods in 2026: February, May, August and November. Students cannot register themselves; the faculty's exam admin registers eligible students who are active in PDDikti and have completed their clinical clerkships.

What happens if a candidate fails one component?

Results are issued separately for the MCQs-CBT and the OSCE, so a candidate retakes only the failed component in a later period, registered again by the faculty. National study-period rules limit repeats; FK-KMK UGM reports a cap of 12 attempts within five years.

How much does the exam cost in 2026?

The national portal does not list fees. A Tim Ad Hoc fee decree circulated in 2026 sets Rp 850,000 for the MCQs-CBT and Rp 1,000,000 for the OSCE, and faculties may add their own charges for preparation or administration.

Is this practice bank an official translation or an OSCE simulation?

No. The official items are not published, and this bank does not reproduce or translate them. It is independent English-language MCQ practice on the clinical knowledge and reasoning described in the Standar Kompetensi Dokter Indonesia. It cannot assess the examination, communication, or procedural skills tested in the OSCE, which need supervised hands-on practice.