Free Practice Questions for OSCE Profesi Ners

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Key Facts: OSCE Profesi Ners Exam

AIPNI

National academic association setting standardized nursing OSCE blueprints

aipni-ainec.org

11 Stations

AIPNI blueprint model (9 active clinical stations and 2 rest stations)

Blueprint OSCE Keperawatan

3S Standards

National clinical terminology framework (SDKI, SLKI, SIKI)

Persatuan Perawat Nasional Indonesia (PPNI)

Separate in 2026

Faculty OSCE administrations remain distinct from the current national UKOMNAS Ners CBT

Kemdiktisaintek UKOM Ners portal and 2026 university reports

Faculty OSCEs assess Profesi Ners students through observed clinical stations. This independent 100-question English-language four-option MCQ study adaptation is not an official translation, an OSCE simulation, or a substitute for supervised hands-on performance practice.

Sample OSCE Profesi Ners Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OSCE Profesi Ners exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1During an inpatient medical-surgical clinical OSCE station, the candidate evaluates a 45-year-old male who underwent a left lobectomy 24 hours ago. The patient has a closed water-seal chest drainage system (WSD). During the assessment, the candidate notes that the water column in the water-seal chamber fluctuates by 4–6 cm with spontaneous breathing, bubbling is absent, and the patient has clear bilateral breath sounds with an SpO2 of 98% on room air. How should the candidate interpret this finding?

A.The system has an active air leak along the pleural tubing connection

B.The chest tube is occluded by a fibrin clot and requires immediate stripping

C.Normal fluctuation (tidaling) reflecting intrapleural pressure changes during respiration

D.The lung has fully expanded and the chest tube must be clamped immediately

Explanation: Fluctuation of the water column in the water-seal chamber (tidaling) is a normal and expected finding during spontaneous respiration. As intrapleural pressure becomes more negative during inspiration, the fluid level rises, and during expiration, intrapleural pressure increases, causing the fluid level to fall. The absence of continuous bubbling indicates there is no active pneumothorax or external air leak.

2At a tracheostomy care skills station, a candidate prepares to perform endotracheal suctioning on an alert adult patient with excessive secretions. What is the recommended maximum duration of suction catheter application per pass to prevent hypoxemia and mucosal trauma?

A.10 to 15 seconds

B.25 to 30 seconds

C.35 to 45 seconds

D.5 to 8 seconds

Explanation: Standard clinical suctioning protocols recommend limiting continuous negative pressure suction application to no more than 10 to 15 seconds per pass. Prolonged suctioning rapidly depletes alveolar oxygen reserves, leading to severe desaturation, cardiac dysrhythmias, and tracheal mucosal trauma.

3In an intravenous cannulation OSCE station, the candidate assesses an existing peripheral IV site on a patient's left forearm. The site displays slight pain upon palpation and mild erythema without swelling or a palpable venous cord (Visual Infusion Phlebitis / VIP Score of 1). What is the appropriate immediate nursing intervention?

A.Observe the infusion site every 4 hours without changing the cannula

B.Slow the infusion rate to half and apply an ice pack for 30 minutes

C.Remove the IV cannula immediately, choose a new site, and document the findings

D.Flush the cannula aggressively with 20 mL of heparinized saline

Explanation: According to the Visual Infusion Phlebitis (VIP) score, a score of 1 indicates possible early signs of phlebitis (slight pain or mild erythema near the site). The standard clinical guideline is to closely observe the cannula site every 4 hours. If the condition worsens to VIP score 2 (pain with erythema and/or edema), the cannula must be immediately resited.

4Ten minutes after the initiation of a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion, the patient complains of sudden shivering, lumbar back pain, dyspnea, and nausea. Vital signs show blood pressure dropping from 120/80 to 90/55 mmHg, pulse 116 bpm, and temperature rising from 36.8°C to 38.6°C. What is the immediate priority action the candidate must demonstrate?

A.Immediately stop the blood transfusion and disconnect the blood tubing at the cannula hub

B.Slow the infusion rate to 10 drops per minute and administer oral paracetamol 500 mg

C.Administer intravenous diphenhydramine through the blood transfusion line

D.Elevate the patient's legs and replace the blood bag with a fresh unit of blood

Explanation: The patient is experiencing an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, a life-threatening medical emergency. The first and most critical action is to immediately stop the transfusion, disconnect the blood administration tubing from the intravenous cannula, and flush the venous line with normal saline using new IV tubing to maintain vein patency while calling for urgent medical assistance.

5A candidate is tested on indwelling urinary catheterization (Foley catheter) in an adult male patient. After advancing the catheter into the urethra, urine begins to flow into the drainage tubing. What is the correct next procedural step before inflating the retention balloon?

A.Inflate the retention balloon immediately with 10 mL of sterile water

B.Advance the catheter another 2.5 to 5 cm (or up to the bifurcation) before balloon inflation

C.Pull the catheter back 2 cm to ensure it is snug against the bladder neck

D.Instill 10 mL of normal saline through the irrigation port to clear prostatic secretions

Explanation: In male urethral catheterization, the appearance of urine indicates that the catheter eyelets have entered the bladder; however, the retention balloon may still reside within the prostatic urethra. To prevent severe urethral rupture and traumatic bleeding, the nurse must advance the catheter another 2.5 to 5 cm (or up to the tubing bifurcation) before inflating the balloon with sterile water, ensuring the balloon is safely inside the bladder cavity.

6At an electrocardiogram (ECG) recording station, the candidate is required to place the precordial chest lead V4 on a female patient. What is the correct anatomical landmark for lead V4?

A.Fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border

B.Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border

C.Fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line

D.Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line

Explanation: Precordial lead V4 is positioned in the fifth intercostal space along the left midclavicular line. Lead V1 is at the 4th ICS right sternal border, V2 at the 4th ICS left sternal border, V3 midway between V2 and V4, V5 at the 5th ICS anterior axillary line, and V6 at the 5th ICS midaxillary line.

7In a neurological assessment station, the candidate examines a 32-year-old female admitted after a motor vehicle collision. Upon assessment, the patient opens her eyes only in response to localized trapezius pressure (pain), utters incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws her arm from the painful stimulus. What is her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

A.E2 V2 M4 (Total GCS = 8)

B.E2 V3 M4 (Total GCS = 9)

C.E3 V2 M5 (Total GCS = 10)

D.E1 V2 M3 (Total GCS = 6)

Explanation: The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Eye opening to pressure = 2; incomprehensible sounds = 2; and normal flexion/withdrawal = 4, for E2 V2 M4 = 8. This severe impairment requires urgent airway and neurologic assessment; the score should inform, but does not by itself replace, evaluation of protective reflexes, oxygenation, ventilation, and clinical trajectory.

8A 68-year-old man is admitted with an acute ischemic stroke, right-sided weakness, and facial droop. Before any food, drink, or oral medication, which approach to dysphagia screening is safest?

A.Administer a full 200 mL glass of water rapidly and observe for coughing

B.Use the facility's validated stroke swallow screen only when the patient meets its readiness criteria; stop for any failed item and keep the patient NPO pending specialist assessment

C.Place the patient supine and instill 10 mL of water through a straw

D.Begin immediately with dry crackers to test mastication before testing liquid swallowing

Explanation: Acute-stroke patients should be screened for swallowing safety before oral intake by a trained clinician using the institution's validated protocol. Readiness checks and test volumes differ among validated tools, so a candidate should not invent a universal water sequence. Any failed item requires stopping the screen, maintaining NPO status, and arranging a comprehensive swallowing assessment.

9In an enteral-nutrition station, a newly placed nasogastric tube must be checked before first use. Which bedside approach is appropriate when the facility protocol permits aspirate pH testing?

A.Aspirate fluid and test it with gastric-range pH paper using the facility's accepted cutoff; if no aspirate is obtained or the result is outside that range, withhold use and obtain radiographic confirmation

B.Injecting 20 mL of air through the tube while auscultating the epigastrium (whoosh test)

C.Placing the external end of the tube in a cup of water to check for air bubbles

D.Checking whether the patient can speak without coughing

Explanation: Approved pH testing of aspirated fluid can support gastric placement at the bedside, but the accepted cutoff and testing product must follow the local protocol. An absent or inconclusive aspirate is not permission to feed; radiography is required before first use when bedside confirmation fails. Air auscultation, bubbling, and the ability to speak cannot establish tube location.

10During a stoma care OSCE station, the candidate inspects a permanent end-colostomy created 48 hours ago. Which appearance of the stoma tissue confirms healthy perfusion and normal early postoperative viability?

A.Pale pink, dry, and flush with the abdominal skin

B.Dark purple to black with persistent foul odor

C.Beefy red or moist rose-pink, slightly edematous, and warm to the touch

D.Deep brown with mucosal sloughing and grey exudate

Explanation: A healthy stoma should appear moist and beefy red or rose-pink, resembling the vascularity of buccal mucosa. Mild edema is expected during the first few postoperative days. A pale, dusky, purple, or black stoma indicates compromised vascular perfusion and tissue ischemia/necrosis requiring immediate surgical notification.

About the OSCE Profesi Ners Exam

OSCE Profesi Ners is a faculty-administered practical clinical performance assessment using a nationally standardized AIPNI blueprint. It evaluates observed nursing assessment, decisions, procedures, communication, and professional behavior and is separate from the current national UKOMNAS Ners CBT.

Exam sponsor: The candidate's nursing faculty or institution; AIPNI supplies the shared blueprint and training framework. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

The AIPNI blueprint assesses six competency dimensions—communication/education/counseling, assessment, diagnosis/planning, implementation, evaluation, and professional behavior—across emergency, inpatient, outpatient, and community/family settings.

Time Limit

AIPNI blueprint model: 20 minutes per station and 220 minutes total; faculty timing may vary

Passing Score

Period- or institution-specific cut score using an analytical checklist plus a global rating, with the AIPNI blueprint describing Borderline Group or Borderline Regression standard setting

Exam / Certification Fees

Not published nationally; set by university nursing faculties

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

30 of 100 practice questions

Keperawatan Medikal Bedah / KMB (Medical-Surgical Nursing Clinical Stations)

Procedural safety and clinical reasoning across inpatient adult care: chest tube (WSD) monitoring, tracheostomy care, IV cannulation, blood transfusion protocols, indwelling catheterization, ECG interpretation, GCS neurological assessment, and aseptic wound care.

20 of 100 practice questions

Keperawatan Gawat Darurat, Bencana & Kritis / GADAR (Emergency & Critical Care Stations)

Acute life-threatening scenarios: high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR/AED), basic and advanced airway management, tension pneumothorax decompression, shock differentiation and fluid resuscitation, anaphylaxis management, and START disaster triage.

15 of 100 practice questions

Keperawatan Maternitas (Maternity Nursing Clinical Stations)

Antenatal, intranatal, and postpartum clinical skills: Leopold maneuvers, partograph monitoring, active management of third-stage labor (MAK III), severe preeclampsia MgSO4 infusion protocols, postpartum hemorrhage management, and newborn care.

15 of 100 practice questions

Keperawatan Anak (Pediatric & Neonatal Nursing Clinical Stations)

Pediatric acute and developmental care: neonatal resuscitation algorithm, Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT), dehydration classification and WHO rehydration plans, febrile convulsion management, phototherapy safety, and atraumatic pediatric procedures.

10 of 100 practice questions

Keperawatan Jiwa (Psychiatric Nursing Clinical Stations)

Therapeutic psychiatric interventions: nurse-patient therapeutic relationship, implementation strategies (SP) for auditory hallucinations, violent behavior de-escalation, suicide risk assessment, social isolation, and psychiatric emergency management.

10 of 100 practice questions

Keperawatan Komunitas, Keluarga & Gerontik (Community, Family & Geriatric Stations)

Public and family health practice: community health assessment, Musyawarah Masyarakat Desa (MMD) facilitation, five family health tasks, Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment (CGA), Barthel Index ADL scoring, and home fall prevention.

Preparing for the OSCE Profesi Ners Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Period- or institution-specific cut score using an analytical checklist plus a global rating, with the AIPNI blueprint describing Borderline Group or Borderline Regression standard setting
Assessment: The AIPNI blueprint assesses six competency dimensions—communication/education/counseling, assessment, diagnosis/planning, implementation, evaluation, and professional behavior—across emergency, inpatient, outpatient, and community/family settings.
Time limit: AIPNI blueprint model: 20 minutes per station and 220 minutes total; faculty timing may vary
Exam / certification fees: Not published nationally; set by university nursing faculties Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

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OSCE Profesi Ners: Suggested Study Strategy

1Always prioritize patient safety goals (SKP): verify patient identity with two identifiers, perform hand hygiene (5 moments), and explain the procedure before touching the patient.

2In medical-surgical stations, follow systematic physical assessment techniques (inspect, palpate, percuss, auscultate) except in abdominal exams where auscultation precedes palpation and percussion.

3Memorize standard medication safety double-checks, especially high-alert infusions such as magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) in maternity emergencies and rapid crystalloids in pediatric shock.

4Review the structured communication model SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) and implementation strategies (SP) for psychiatric nursing scenarios.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the OSCE Profesi Ners in Indonesia?

OSCE Profesi Ners is a practical clinical performance assessment administered by individual Indonesian nursing higher-education institutions using an AIPNI-developed national blueprint. Current universities call it Ujian OSCE Standar Nasional or OSCE Komprehensif and use it to observe procedural skills, clinical decisions, communication, and professional behavior.

How does this OSCE differ from the national UKOMNAS Ners CBT?

The current national UKOMNAS Ners is a computer-based test administered through the Kemdiktisaintek system. The OSCE covered here is a separate practical, station-based assessment administered by nursing faculties; a national Profesi Ners OSCE rollout has been reported as planned for 2027.

Does this practice bank simulate hands-on OSCE stations?

No. The official assessment and participant materials are in Indonesian and require observed performance. This bank is an independent English-language four-option MCQ study adaptation focused on clinical judgment, safety principles, and procedural sequences. It is not an official translation and cannot replace supervised psychomotor practice in a nursing skills laboratory.

How does the AIPNI blueprint organize the OSCE?

The blueprint uses nine active stations for oxygenation, circulation, fluids/electrolytes, nutrition, elimination, activity/rest, safety/comfort, psychosocial needs, and sexuality/reproductive health, plus two rest stations. Each station samples at least three of six competency dimensions. The specialty groupings on this practice page are study navigation, not official blueprint weights.