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Key Facts: Ukom Kolegium Dokter Exam

Online CBT + OSCE

Exam format for adaptation candidates (CBT only for recertification candidates)

kolegiumdokter.org

Confirm per sitting

Official fee was not published in the sources reviewed

kolegiumdokter.org; IDI Denpasar

Lifetime STR

Registration certificate validity under UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 (SIP renewed every 5 years)

UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 Pasal 260

144 Diagnoses

Mandatory non-specialistic clinical conditions managed at FKTP primary care level

Kemenkes RI & BPJS Kesehatan

The Kolegium Dokter competency examination certifies general practitioners undergoing adaptation (WNI LLN foreign medical graduates) or recertification (doctors not in active practice for >5 years or with lapsed SIP). Administered by Kolegium Dokter Indonesia with an online CBT (and OSCE for adaptan), it tests clinical reasoning across all body systems, forensic medicine, and Indonesian health regulations. This is independent Kolegium Dokter practice by OpenExamPrep: an English-language MCQ study adaptation for independent study, not an official test or simulation.

Sample Ukom Kolegium Dokter Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Ukom Kolegium Dokter exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 56-year-old male presents to a primary care clinic (Puskesmas) with crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to his left jaw and arm for the past 90 minutes, accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. His blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, heart rate is 88 bpm, and respiratory rate is 20 breaths/min. A 12-lead ECG reveals 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V4 with reciprocal ST depression in leads III and aVF. What is the most appropriate immediate medical stabilization before emergency transfer to a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)-capable hospital?

A.Administer chewable aspirin 160–320 mg plus a loading dose of clopidogrel 300–600 mg, sublingual isosorbide dinitrate 5 mg, and arrange immediate emergency transfer

B.Administer oral metoprolol 50 mg, subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin, and observe in the primary care ward for 6 hours

C.Administer intravenous streptokinase 1.5 million units immediately over 60 minutes without antiplatelet loading

D.Administer intramuscular morphine 10 mg alone and repeat ECG in 2 hours to confirm persistent ST elevation

Explanation: In acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), initial primary care stabilization under Indonesian Heart Association (PERKI) guidelines requires immediate dual antiplatelet loading therapy with chewable non-enteric-coated aspirin (160–320 mg) and clopidogrel (300 mg or 600 mg for primary PCI), sublingual nitrates for chest pain (provided SBP >90 mmHg and no right ventricular involvement), oxygen if SpO2 <90%, and prompt emergency ambulance transfer to a PCI-capable center within the 120-minute target window.

2A 52-year-old female with a 5-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus visits the outpatient clinic for a routine check-up. Her blood pressure on three separate clinic visits has averaged 152/94 mmHg. Urinalysis demonstrates persistent microalbuminuria with a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR) of 180 mg/g. Her serum creatinine is 1.0 mg/dL (eGFR 78 mL/min/1.73 m2) and serum potassium is 4.3 mEq/L. According to the Indonesian Society of Hypertension (PERHI) guidelines, which antihypertensive regimen is the most appropriate initial choice?

A.Amlodipine 10 mg monotherapy once daily

B.Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg monotherapy once daily

C.An ACE inhibitor (e.g., Ramipril 5 mg) or ARB (e.g., Candesartan 8 mg) once daily

D.Propranolol 40 mg twice daily

Explanation: Under PERHI and KDIGO consensus guidelines, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) is the first-line antihypertensive agent of choice for hypertensive patients with diabetes mellitus and albuminuria (UACR 30–300 mg/g or higher). These agents reduce intraglomerular pressure, decrease proteinuria, and slow the progression of diabetic kidney disease beyond blood pressure lowering alone.

3A 64-year-old male with ischemic cardiomyopathy presents to the emergency room in severe respiratory distress, orthopnea, and pink frothy sputum. Physical examination reveals bilateral diffuse coarse crackles throughout both lung fields, jugular venous distention of 5+4 cm H2O, blood pressure of 175/100 mmHg, pulse of 110 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 82% on room air. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological combination for this acute decompensated heart failure with pulmonary edema?

A.Intravenous furosemide 40–80 mg bolus, high-flow supplemental oxygen, and sublingual/intravenous nitroglycerin

B.Intravenous digoxin 0.5 mg bolus, oral carvedilol 25 mg, and fluid bolus of 500 mL normal saline

C.Intravenous dobutamine infusion 10 mcg/kg/min, oral spironolactone 50 mg, and subcutaneous morphine

D.Intravenous amiodarone 300 mg bolus, oral diltiazem 60 mg, and chest physiotherapy

Explanation: The patient presents with acute decompensated heart failure and cardiogenic pulmonary edema with elevated blood pressure (Killip class III, 'warm and wet'). Initial therapy consists of upright positioning, high-flow oxygen or non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (CPAP/BiPAP), intravenous loop diuretics (furosemide 40–80 mg) to induce rapid venodilation and subsequent diuresis, and intravenous/sublingual nitrates to decrease preload and afterload given the adequate blood pressure (>110 mmHg).

4A 28-year-old female presents to the primary health center with sudden-onset palpitations, lightheadedness, and throat fullness that started while sitting at her desk 45 minutes ago. Her blood pressure is 115/75 mmHg, pulse is 190 bpm regular, and respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min. The 12-lead ECG demonstrates a regular narrow-complex tachycardia (QRS duration 80 ms) with no visible P waves. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

A.Perform a modified Valsalva maneuver or unilateral carotid sinus massage

B.Deliver immediate synchronized electrical cardioversion with 100 Joules

C.Administer an immediate intravenous bolus of atropine 1 mg

D.Infuse intravenous epinephrine 1 mg over 2 minutes

Explanation: In a hemodynamically stable patient with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (AVNRT/AVRT), the first-line intervention is vagal maneuvers, such as the modified Valsalva maneuver (blowing into a 10 mL syringe to 40 mmHg for 15 seconds followed by supine repositioning and passive leg elevation) or unilateral carotid massage. If vagal maneuvers fail, intravenous adenosine (6 mg rapid IV push followed by a 20 mL saline flush) is the next step.

5A 58-year-old male with chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, LVEF 32%, NYHA class II) is seen in the outpatient clinic. He is euvolemic on physical examination with no peripheral edema, JVP 5-2 cm H2O, and clear breath sounds. He is currently taking enalapril 10 mg twice daily and bisoprolol 5 mg once daily. According to contemporary guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT), which combination represents the full 'four pillars' of disease-modifying therapy for HFrEF?

A.ACEi/ARNI + evidence-based Beta-blocker + Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA) + SGLT2 inhibitor

B.ACEi + Digoxin + Thiazide diuretic + Calcium channel blocker

C.Beta-blocker + Nitrate + Hydralazine + Statin alone

D.Loop diuretic + Potassium-sparing diuretic + ARB + Alpha-blocker

Explanation: The guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) 'four pillars' for chronic HFrEF, recognized by PERKI and international heart failure guidelines, comprise: (1) an ARNI (sacubitril/valsartan) or ACEi/ARB, (2) an evidence-based beta-blocker (bisoprolol, carvedilol, or sustained-release metoprolol), (3) a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone), and (4) an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin). This quadruple regimen substantially reduces all-cause mortality and heart failure hospitalizations.

6A 60-year-old female presents to the primary clinic with recurrent episodes of retrosternal squeezing chest pressure occurring at rest over the last 24 hours, each lasting 15–20 minutes. Her ECG during the discomfort shows transient 1 mm horizontal ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion in leads V5, V6, and aVL without ST-segment elevation. Her vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 76 bpm, and SpO2 98%. What is the most appropriate initial medical management in primary care prior to ambulance transfer?

A.Administer aspirin 160–320 mg chewed, clopidogrel 300 mg, atorvastatin 40–80 mg, and subcutaneous enoxaparin or fondaparinux, then transfer to a hospital with cardiac care facilities

B.Administer oral antacids, a single dose of alprazolam 0.5 mg, and discharge with outpatient Holter monitoring

C.Administer intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA) immediately to prevent transmural infarction

D.Prescribe oral diltiazem 60 mg three times daily and schedule an outpatient treadmill exercise stress test in one week

Explanation: The clinical presentation and ECG findings of rest chest pain with ST depression/T-wave inversion without ST elevation represent acute Non-ST-Elevation Acute Coronary Syndrome (NSTE-ACS: Unstable Angina or NSTEMI). Primary care management requires immediate dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin 160–320 mg plus clopidogrel 300 mg), high-intensity statin (atorvastatin 40–80 mg), subcutaneous anticoagulation (fondaparinux 2.5 mg SC or enoxaparin 1 mg/kg SC), sublingual nitrates for pain relief, and prompt ambulance referral for troponin testing and risk-stratified invasive management.

7A 50-year-old male with poorly controlled chronic hypertension is brought to the emergency department with a severe throbbing headache, blurred vision, and confusion. His blood pressure is 220/130 mmHg. Fundoscopic examination reveals bilateral optic disc edema (papilledema) and flame-shaped retinal hemorrhages. There are no focal lateralizing motor deficits. According to PERHI guidelines, what is the target blood pressure reduction strategy in this hypertensive emergency?

A.Lower mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 20–25% within the first hour using continuous intravenous antihypertensives (e.g., nicardipine), aiming for ~160/100 mmHg over the subsequent 2–6 hours

B.Rapidly normalize blood pressure to <120/80 mmHg within the first 30 minutes using sublingual nifedipine bite-and-swallow

C.Administer oral captopril 25 mg every 30 minutes until diastolic blood pressure drops below 80 mmHg

D.Infuse 1,000 mL normal saline and defer all antihypertensive medications for 24 hours to preserve renal perfusion

Explanation: Hypertensive emergency is defined by severely elevated blood pressure (>180/120 mmHg) accompanied by acute target-organ damage (hypertensive encephalopathy, retinopathy grade IV, acute heart failure, or aortic dissection). In hypertensive encephalopathy, cerebral autoregulation is shifted; excessively rapid reduction causes cerebral hypoperfusion, watershed infarction, or death. Guidelines recommend reducing MAP by no more than 20–25% within the first hour using a titratable IV agent (such as nicardipine or labetalol), then cautiously toward 160/100 mmHg over 2–6 hours.

8A 68-year-old female with a history of hypertension and ischemic stroke 2 years ago presents to the outpatient clinic for a general check-up. She feels well and has no palpitations. On physical examination, her pulse is irregularly irregular at 82 bpm, and blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. An ECG confirms non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Using the CHA2DS2-VASc score, what is her score, and what is the recommended thromboembolic prophylaxis?

A.CHA2DS2-VASc score is 5; long-term oral anticoagulation (DOAC or adjusted-dose warfarin) is strongly indicated

B.CHA2DS2-VASc score is 2; low-dose aspirin 81 mg daily monotherapy is sufficient

C.CHA2DS2-VASc score is 1; no antithrombotic therapy is required

D.CHA2DS2-VASc score is 4; dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is the first choice

Explanation: The CHA2DS2-VASc score assigns: Congestive heart failure (0), Hypertension (1), Age >=75 (0), Diabetes (0), Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2), Vascular disease (0), Age 65-74 (1), Sex category female (1). Her total score is 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 5 points. For females with a CHA2DS2-VASc score >=3 (or males >=2), oral anticoagulation with a Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC: rivaroxaban, apixaban, dabigatran) or warfarin (target INR 2.0–3.0) is strongly recommended to prevent ischemic stroke.

9A 34-year-old male presents to a community health center (Puskesmas) with productive cough for 3 weeks, low-grade evening fevers, drenching night sweats, and unintentional weight loss of 5 kg. He has never been diagnosed with or treated for tuberculosis before. In accordance with current Indonesian National Tuberculosis Program (Program Nasional Penanggulangan Tuberkulosis) guidelines, what is the primary diagnostic investigation that must be performed first on his sputum?

A.Rapid Molecular Test (Tes Cepat Molekuler / TCM, e.g., GeneXpert MTB/RIF)

B.Standard Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast bacilli (AFB / BTA) sputum smear microscopy alone

C.Mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD 5 TU)

D.Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for SARS-CoV-2 and bacterial sputum culture

Explanation: Under the Indonesian Ministry of Health (Kemenkes) National TB Program guidelines, Tes Cepat Molekuler (TCM / GeneXpert MTB/RIF) is the mandatory primary initial diagnostic test for all presumptive pulmonary TB cases. TCM detects Mycobacterium tuberculosis DNA and simultaneously determines rifampicin resistance within 2 hours, vastly improving case detection and early identification of drug-resistant TB compared to conventional microscopy.

10A 26-year-old female weighing 50 kg is diagnosed with newly detected, drug-susceptible pulmonary tuberculosis (GeneXpert shows MTB detected, Rifampicin resistance NOT detected). She has no history of liver disease or renal impairment. What is the standard Category 1 regimen recommended by the Indonesian National TB Guidelines (DOTS)?

A.2 months of daily fixed-dose combination RHZE (Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol) followed by 4 months of daily RH (Rifampicin, Isoniazid)

B.2 months of streptomycin, isoniazid, and rifampicin followed by 7 months of isoniazid and ethambutol

C.6 months of continuous rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol daily

D.3 months of bedaquiline, linezolid, and levofloxacin followed by 6 months of moxifloxacin

Explanation: The standard Category 1 treatment for newly diagnosed drug-susceptible pulmonary tuberculosis under Indonesian DOTS guidelines consists of a 2-month intensive phase with 4 drugs (Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol: 2RHZE) followed by a 4-month continuation phase with 2 drugs (Rifampicin, Isoniazid: 4RH). Fixed-Dose Combination (FDC / KDT) tablets are administered daily under direct observed therapy to maximize adherence and prevent resistance.

About the Ukom Kolegium Dokter Exam

The Kolegium Dokter competency examination (Uji Kompetensi Dokter) is the national assessment pathway for practicing physicians seeking recertification after career breaks and Indonesian graduates from foreign medical schools (WNI LLN) seeking adaptation and registration to practice in Indonesia.

Exam sponsor: Kolegium Dokter (Kolegium Dokter Indonesia). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Online Computer-Based Test (CBT) featuring clinical vignettes across cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, hepatobiliary, renal, endocrine, tropical infections, nervous system, musculoskeletal, sense organs, reproductive, pediatrics, forensic medicine, and health regulations. Foreign-trained doctors (Adaptan) also complete an OSCE practical assessment across six university centers.

Time Limit

Not published in the official sources reviewed; confirm with Kolegium Dokter.

Passing Score

Not published in the official sources reviewed; confirm with Kolegium Dokter.

Exam / Certification Fees

Not published in the official sources reviewed; confirm for the specific route and sitting.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

20 of 100 practice questions

Cardiovascular & Respiratory Systems in Clinical Practice

STEMI and NSTE-ACS stabilization, secondary and primary hypertension under PERHI guidelines, chronic heart failure GDMT four pillars, arrhythmias, pulmonary tuberculosis DOTS Category 1 and DILI management, CURB-65 pneumonia triage, acute asthma exacerbation, COPD spirometry and maintenance, and pleural effusion Light's criteria.

20 of 100 practice questions

Gastrointestinal, Hepatobiliary & Renal Systems

Upper GI bleeding triage and PPI therapy, H. pylori triple eradication, GERD empirical PPI trial, acute diarrhea rehydration, typhoid fever diagnosis, intestinal perforation and carrier state, viral hepatitis A, B, and C, cirrhotic ascites and SBP, prerenal AKI vs ATN, drug-induced AIN, CKD staging, pyelonephritis, complicated UTI, and nephrolithiasis.

20 of 100 practice questions

Endocrine, Metabolic & Infectious/Tropical Diseases

Type 2 diabetes under PERKENI guidelines, DKA and HHS emergency differentiation, Graves' disease and thiamazole agranulocytosis, primary hypothyroidism, dyslipidemia high-intensity statin targets, thyroid storm sequence, dengue and dengue shock syndrome, malaria diagnosis and ACT/DHP regimens, leptospirosis, rabies PEP, tetanus wound management, and snakebite envenomation.

20 of 100 practice questions

Nervous System, Musculoskeletal & Sense Organs

Acute stroke FAST recognition and non-contrast CT, Siriraj stroke score, TIA ABCD2 risk stratification, status epilepticus emergency protocol, tension-type headache, migraine, Bell's palsy, diabetic peripheral neuropathy, closed fracture splinting, acute compartment syndrome, knee osteoarthritis, acute gout vs allopurinol timing, acute angle-closure glaucoma, bacterial conjunctivitis, corneal ulcer, ear/nose foreign bodies, otitis media, and epistaxis.

20 of 100 practice questions

Reproductive, Pediatrics, Forensic Medicine & Healthcare Regulations

Preeclampsia with severe features (PEB) and eclampsia MgSO4 protocols, postpartum hemorrhage bimanual compression and uterotonics, Puskesmas 10T ANC standard (K1-K6), contraceptive MEC in lactation, simple febrile seizures, pediatric dehydration Plans A/B/C, zinc in diarrhea, severe acute malnutrition 10 steps and F-75, complete routine childhood immunization, Visum et Repertum structure under KUHAP, KUHP injury classification (Luka Ringan, Sedang, Berat Pasal 90), blunt vs sharp wound pathology, medical confidentiality exceptions, informed consent emergency doctrine, UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 lifetime STR and 5-year SIP renewal via SATUSEHAT SDMK, Kolegium adaptation pathway for WNI LLN, BPJS Kesehatan tiered referral gatekeeping with 144 non-specialistic diagnoses, medical negligence vs complication, and restorative justice mediation.

Preparing for the Ukom Kolegium Dokter Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Not published in the official sources reviewed; confirm with Kolegium Dokter.
Assessment: Online Computer-Based Test (CBT) featuring clinical vignettes across cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, hepatobiliary, renal, endocrine, tropical infections, nervous system, musculoskeletal, sense organs, reproductive, pediatrics, forensic medicine, and health regulations. Foreign-trained doctors (Adaptan) also complete an OSCE practical assessment across six university centers.
Time limit: Not published in the official sources reviewed; confirm with Kolegium Dokter.
Exam / certification fees: Not published in the official sources reviewed; confirm for the specific route and sitting. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

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Ukom Kolegium Dokter: Suggested Study Strategy

1Focus systematically on the official Kisi-Kisi Soal domains: internal medicine, respiratory, pediatrics, obstetrics/gynecology, surgery, neurology, sense organs, forensic medicine, and health systems.

2Review Indonesian national clinical practice guidelines (PNPK) and professional society guidelines (PERHI for hypertension, PERKENI for diabetes, POGI for preeclampsia/PPH, IDAI for pediatric dehydration and immunization, PDPI for TB/asthma/COPD).

3Pay careful attention to Indonesian health law (UU No. 17 Tahun 2023), the 144 non-specialistic diagnoses required at Puskesmas/FKTP level under BPJS Kesehatan, and Visum et Repertum principles under KUHAP and KUHP.

4Practice clinical vignettes under timed conditions to hone single-best-answer decision-making and diagnostic reasoning.

5Adaptation candidates should prepare separately for hands-on physical examination, communication, and procedural skills tested in the OSCE.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Kolegium Dokter competency exam (Ukom Dokter)?

The Uji Kompetensi Dokter administered by Kolegium Dokter Indonesia is the official competency assessment for two groups of physicians: (1) foreign-trained Indonesian doctors (WNI Lulusan Luar Negeri / Adaptan) seeking adaptation and registration in Indonesia, and (2) Indonesian doctors seeking recertification (Resertifikasi) after an absence from clinical practice of more than 5 years or whose SIP has lapsed for more than 5 years.

What is the format of the exam, and is an OSCE required?

Both routes share an online Computer-Based Test (CBT) multiple-choice examination based on the official Kisi-Kisi Soal published by Kolegium Dokter Indonesia. For recertification candidates (Resertifikasi), the examination is CBT only. For adaptation candidates (Adaptan WNI LLN), candidates must pass both the online CBT and an Objective Structured Clinical Examination (OSCE) conducted at six accredited university medical faculty centers across Indonesia.

How did UU No. 17 Tahun 2023 change medical registration (STR) and licensing (SIP)?

Under Law No. 17 of 2023 (UU Kesehatan), the Surat Tanda Registrasi (STR) issued by Konsil Kesehatan Indonesia (KKI) is now valid for life (seumur hidup) without requiring 5-year re-examination or renewal. However, to practice medicine, doctors must maintain an active Practice License (Surat Izin Praktik / SIP), which remains valid for 5 years and requires fulfilling continuing professional development credits (SKP) managed digitally on the SATUSEHAT SDMK platform.

How much does the exam cost, and how do candidates register?

The current fee was not published in the official sources reviewed. Candidates should use the official Kolegium Dokter portal for sitting-specific registration and payment information. Adaptation candidates must first complete the applicable Konsil Kesehatan Indonesia verification process.

How does this practice question bank relate to the real exam?

This practice bank is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation developed by OpenExamPrep to help clinicians and candidates review clinical reasoning, diagnostic criteria, national treatment guidelines (PAPDI, PERHI, PERKENI, POGI, IDAI), forensic medicine, and health regulations. It does not replicate official confidential test items and does not substitute for the official OSCE examination.