100+ Free IAED EPD Practice Questions

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What does ProQA Police software do for the Emergency Police Dispatcher?

Stores body-worn camera video for evidence

Provides a software-based, point-and-click implementation of the PPDS protocol that drives Case Entry, Key Questions, PAI/PDI, and Determinant Codes

Performs NCIC III queries automatically

Replaces CAD systems for resource allocation

to track

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: IAED EPD Exam

Exam Questions

IAED Certification

80%

Passing Score

IAED Certification

3 days (~24 hrs)

Course Length

IAED Courses and Training

2 yrs / 24 CDE

Recertification Cycle

IAED Recertification

~36

PPDS Protocols

Priority Dispatch Corp.

95% in 15 sec

NFPA 1225 Answer Standard

NFPA 1225 / NENA STA-020

Protocol 136

Active Assailant Protocol

IAED Journal

5 criteria

AMBER Alert Activation

U.S. DOJ AMBER Alert

IAED EPD is a 3-day, ~24-hour certification course followed by a 50-question written exam with an 80% passing score. It certifies dispatchers in the Police Priority Dispatch System (PPDS): Case Entry, Key Questions, Pre-Arrival/Post-Dispatch Instructions, and Determinant Codes across ~36 PPDS protocols (e.g., 101 Abduction, 109 Domestic Violence, 115 Hostage/Barricade, 124 Suicidal Subject, 132 Weapons, 133 Welfare Check, 136 Active Assailant). EPDs use ProQA Police software, are QA-scored via EPD-Q/ED-Q against the IAED Standard of Care, and operate in PSAPs accredited under the IAED Accredited Center of Excellence (ACE) program. Recertification is every 2 years with 24 hours of CDE. ED-Q certification fulfills EPD recertification.

Sample IAED EPD Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your IAED EPD exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the IAED Police Priority Dispatch System (PPDS), what are the four sequential components every protocol-driven call follows after the initial answer?

A.Case Entry, Key Questions, Pre-Arrival/Post-Dispatch Instructions, Determinant Code

B.Greeting, Triage, Stack, Close

C.Triage, Code 4, Disposition, Quality Assurance

D.Case Entry, Triage Codes, NCIC Run, Dispatch

Explanation: PPDS is structured identically to MPDS and FPDS: Case Entry collects address/callback/problem, Key Questions refine the problem to the correct Chief Complaint, Pre-Arrival or Post-Dispatch Instructions guide the caller, and the Determinant Code (e.g., 124-D-1) drives the response plan. EPD candidates must be able to name and order these four phases.

2Which PPDS protocol governs Active Assailant (Shooter) calls and is used when an attacker is actively shooting or attempting to kill multiple people?

A.Protocol 115 — Hostage/Barricade

B.Protocol 132 — Weapons/Firearms

C.Protocol 136 — Active Assailant (Shooter)

D.Protocol 137 — Civil Disorder/Disturbance

Explanation: Protocol 136 was introduced by IAED in December 2012 specifically for active assailant/shooter incidents because their rapid escalation requires unique sequencing — including ProQA links to bleeding control and tourniquet instructions. EPDs initiate a 136-E-1 high-priority response when an active assailant is identified at Case Entry.

3What is the minimum passing score for the IAED Emergency Police Dispatcher (EPD) certification examination?

A.70 percent

B.75 percent

C.80 percent

D.85 percent

Explanation: IAED publishes a uniform 80 percent passing standard for EPD, EMD, and EFD certification exams. The EPD exam itself is a 50-question written test administered after the three-day course; candidates who do not achieve 80 percent may retest per IAED policy.

4How often must an IAED-certified Emergency Police Dispatcher recertify, and how many Continuing Dispatch Education (CDE) hours are required?

A.Annually with 12 CDE hours

B.Every two years with 24 CDE hours

C.Every three years with 36 CDE hours

D.Every five years with 60 CDE hours

Explanation: IAED requires EPDs to recertify every two years by completing 24 hours of Continuing Dispatch Education (CDE). Submissions may be made up to six months before the expiration date. Holding an ED-Q certification can satisfy EPD CDE requirements.

5During PPDS Case Entry, what is the FIRST piece of information the EPD must confirm before any other question?

A.Caller's name and date of birth

B.Address/location of the incident

C.Suspect description

D.Weapon involvement

Explanation: Case Entry begins with the address/location so officers can be dispatched even if the call disconnects. Phone callback number is the immediate next field. Problem statement, weapon, and suspect description follow. This ordering applies across MPDS, FPDS, and PPDS.

6An EPD takes a call where a 9-year-old has been taken by force from a school parking lot. Which PPDS protocol applies, and what additional notification is typically triggered?

A.Protocol 118 (Missing Person); state Silver Alert

B.Protocol 101 (Abduction/Kidnapping); AMBER Alert evaluation

C.Protocol 125 (Suspicious Person); BOLO only

D.Protocol 133 (Welfare Check); CART deployment

Explanation: Protocol 101 covers Abduction/Kidnapping. When a child under 18 is abducted, the EPD must rapidly relay information to allow an AMBER Alert evaluation — DOJ criteria include law-enforcement confirmation, risk of serious harm, sufficient descriptive information, and entry into NCIC's Missing Persons File.

7Which Pre-Arrival Instruction is appropriate for a caller hiding inside a building from an active shooter who reports they cannot escape?

A.Tell them to confront the shooter to buy time for officers

B.Coach barricade-in-place: lock and barricade the door, turn off lights, silence phone, stay low and quiet, prepare to fight only as last resort

C.Direct them to drive their car at the shooter

D.Ask them to take photographs of the shooter

Explanation: Protocol 136 Pre-Arrival Instructions align with the federal Run/Hide/Fight and ALICE/Avoid-Deny-Defend frameworks. When escape is impossible, the EPD coaches the caller to hide and barricade — silence the phone, do not hang up, stay low, and fight only as a last resort. Confronting the attacker or taking photos is never an EPD instruction.

8An officer on a traffic stop transmits '10-33' (or 'mayday/officer needs help') over the radio. What is the EPD's FIRST dispatching action?

A.Ask the officer to repeat the location for clarity

B.Hold all non-emergency radio traffic and dispatch the closest available units with lights and siren to the officer's last known location

C.Run the suspect's plate on NCIC

D.Notify the watch commander before sending additional units

Explanation: 10-33 (or 'help call/mayday') signals immediate officer-safety emergency. Standard radio discipline is to clear the air, dispatch the closest backup units Code 3, and treat the officer's last reported location as the incident address. Plate runs and supervisor notifications follow but do not delay backup.

9Under NFPA 1225 (formerly NFPA 1221), what percentage of 911 emergency calls must be answered within 15 seconds and within 40 seconds at the PSAP?

A.90% within 15 seconds; 95% within 40 seconds

B.95% within 15 seconds; 99% within 40 seconds

C.85% within 10 seconds; 95% within 30 seconds

D.100% within 20 seconds

Explanation: NFPA 1225 (consolidating the former 1221) requires Public Safety Answering Points to answer 95 percent of incoming emergency calls within 15 seconds and 99 percent within 40 seconds. NENA STA-020 specifies the same benchmark. EPDs are measured against this standard during QA reviews.

10An EPD takes a caller threatening 'suicide by cop' — they want officers to shoot them. Which PPDS protocol applies, and what coaching is appropriate?

A.Protocol 119 (Person Down); tell caller to lie down for officers

B.Protocol 124 (Suicidal/Suicide Attempt); de-escalation language, request CIT/Mobile Crisis, advise caller to drop weapons and stay on the line

C.Protocol 117 (Mental Disorder); request EMS only

D.Protocol 132 (Weapons); BOLO until officers arrive

Explanation: Protocol 124 covers suicidal/suicide-attempt calls, including suicide-by-cop scenarios. The EPD uses talkdown language, requests Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) or Mobile Crisis Unit coordination, and coaches the caller to disarm and remain on the line while officers stage a tactically safe approach.

About the IAED EPD Exam

The IAED Emergency Police Dispatcher (EPD) certification is the global standard for 911 police call-takers and dispatchers using the Police Priority Dispatch System (PPDS). It is earned by completing a 3-day (~24-hour) IAED-approved course and passing a 50-question written exam at 80%, then maintained on a 2-year cycle with 24 hours of Continuing Dispatch Education (CDE).

Questions

50 scored questions

Time Limit

Typically 60-90 minutes (set by training partner)

Passing Score

80%

Exam Fee

Bundled into the IAED EPD certification course fee (International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED) via Priority Dispatch Corp. and approved training partners)

IAED EPD Exam Content Outline

Foundational

PPDS Protocol Structure

Case Entry, Key Questions, Pre-Arrival/Post-Dispatch Instructions, and Determinant Code (Alpha through Echo) across ~36 PPDS protocols.

Heaviest content area

PPDS Protocols 101-137

Major protocols include 101 Abduction, 102 Assault/Sexual Assault, 103 Animal, 106 Burglar Alarms, 109 Domestic Disturbance/Violence, 110 Drug Activity, 111 Explosion, 114 Hazmat, 115 Hostage/Barricade, 116 Industrial Accident, 117 Mental Disorder, 118 Missing Person, 119 Person Down, 121 Random Vehicle Accident, 123 Robbery, 124 Suicidal Subject, 125 Suspicious Person, 126 Theft, 129 Traffic Accident, 130 Traffic Stop, 131 Vehicle Pursuit, 132 Weapons, 133 Welfare Check, 136 Active Assailant, 137 Civil Disorder.

Lifesaving

Pre-Arrival Instructions

Active-shooter Run/Hide/Fight and ALICE coaching, suicide-by-cop talkdown, naloxone overdose coaching, domestic-violence safety, quiet-call/coded-call handling, child-custody neutrality.

High priority

Officer Safety & NCIC

Code 4, 10-33/officer-down protocols, felony stop coordination, K-9 deployment, undercover/panic-alarm handling, NCIC files and Hit Confirmation, ALPR verification.

Required

Alerts, ICS/NIMS & Standards

AMBER and Silver Alert criteria, BOLO broadcast, Communications Unit under ICS Logistics Section, plain-language radio (NIMS post-2006), NFPA 1225 (95% in 15 sec / 99% in 40 sec), NENA STA-020.

QA & legal

QA & Legal Posture

EPD-Q/ED-Q scoring against IAED Standard of Care, ACE accreditation, HIPAA dispatch posture, VAWA, Marsy's Law, Brady disclosure, Tarasoff-style duty to warn, CJIS handling of CHRI.

How to Pass the IAED EPD Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 80%
Exam length: 50 questions
Time limit: Typically 60-90 minutes (set by training partner)
Exam fee: Bundled into the IAED EPD certification course fee

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

IAED EPD Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the four-phase PPDS structure (Case Entry → Key Questions → PAI/PDI → Determinant Code) and the determinant letter scale Alpha through Echo before any other content.

2Build a flashcard set for the ~36 PPDS protocol numbers; map each to its Chief Complaint name and the most common Determinant pathways (e.g., 136 = Active Assailant → Echo).

3Drill Protocol 136 Pre-Arrival Instructions until you can recite Run/Hide/Fight/ALICE coaching by heart — it is the most frequently weighted scenario on stress drills and ED-Q reviews.

4Practice quiet-call/coded-call handling for Protocol 109 (Domestic Violence) and Protocol 124 (Suicidal Subject); these calls are common ED-Q reviewer targets.

5Lock in the NFPA 1225 / NENA STA-020 call-answering benchmarks: 95% within 15 seconds, 99% within 40 seconds.

6Memorize NCIC files (Vehicle, Wanted, Missing, Protection Order, Article, Gang, Foreign Fugitive), the Hit Confirmation YQ flow, and CJIS dissemination rules for CHRI.

7Know the AMBER Alert five-criteria checklist (LE confirms abduction, serious harm risk, sufficient description, under 18, NCIC entry) and the Silver Alert distinction.

8Practice timed role-plays end-to-end so Case Entry → Chief Complaint → Determinant flows automatically under stress, mirroring the EPD-Q rubric.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the IAED EPD certification?

The Emergency Police Dispatcher (EPD) certification is the IAED credential for 911 dispatchers using the Police Priority Dispatch System (PPDS). It is earned through a 3-day course (~24 hours) administered by IAED-approved training partners (most commonly Priority Dispatch Corp.) followed by a 50-question written exam.

What score do I need to pass the EPD exam?

The IAED EPD certification exam is 50 questions with a passing score of 80%. The same 80% standard applies across the IAED disciplines (EPD, EMD, EFD).

How long is the EPD certification course?

The course is a 3-day program, approximately 24 hours of instruction, delivered in person or virtually by an approved IAED training partner. It culminates in the written exam.

How often do I need to recertify, and how many CDE hours are required?

Recertification is every 2 years and requires 24 hours of Continuing Dispatch Education (CDE) in police-discipline topics. Submissions cannot be accepted more than 6 months before the expiration date.

What are the prerequisites to sit the EPD exam?

Candidates must be actively employed or assigned as a 911 telecommunicator/dispatcher at an agency handling police calls. Many PSAPs and IAED partners also require an Emergency Telecommunicator Certification (ETC) or equivalent foundational training before the EPD course.

What software does an EPD use on the job?

Most IAED-certified PSAPs use ProQA Police — Priority Dispatch Corp.'s software that drives the EPD through PPDS Case Entry, Key Questions, Pre-Arrival/Post-Dispatch Instructions, and Determinant Code selection on screen. ProQA integrates with the agency's CAD system.

What is EPD-Q (and ED-Q), and how does it relate to my certification?

EPD-Q (now usually called ED-Q for the unified discipline) is the IAED quality-assurance certification for dispatch reviewers, scoring calls against the IAED Standard of Care. Holding ED-Q also fulfills EPD, EMD, and EFD recertification CDE requirements.

Does the EPD certification cover active-shooter calls?

Yes. PPDS Protocol 136 (Active Assailant/Shooter) — introduced in 2012 — covers active-shooter response. EPD candidates learn Case Entry triggers, Echo-level dispatch, and Pre-Arrival Instructions aligned with Run/Hide/Fight and ALICE concepts, including barricade-in-place and bleeding-control.

Is the EPD certification recognized for ACE accreditation?

Yes. PSAPs pursuing IAED Accredited Center of Excellence (ACE) status must have 100% of dispatchers certified in the disciplines they handle (EPD for police calls), maintain ED-Q QA, and meet other Twenty Points of Accreditation.