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100+ Free HKCP Intermediate Practice Questions

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Sample HKCP Intermediate Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your HKCP Intermediate exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe, crushing substernal chest pain of 2 hours' duration. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation of 3 mm in leads V1 to V4. The hospital's cardiac catheterization laboratory is currently occupied, and the estimated time to transfer the patient to a nearby tertiary hospital for primary PCI is 140 minutes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Immediate intravenous fibrinolytic therapy
B.Immediate transfer for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
C.Intravenous infusion of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor and wait for the catheterization lab to clear
D.Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)
Explanation: According to STEMI guidelines, if the time from first medical contact to primary PCI is expected to exceed 120 minutes, fibrinolytic therapy should be administered immediately (within 30 minutes of presentation) if there are no contraindications. Since the estimated transfer and PCI time is 140 minutes, immediate fibrinolytic therapy is the class I recommendation.
2A 62-year-old man presents with sudden-onset, severe, tearing chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is 185/110 mmHg and heart rate is 105 bpm. A CT angiogram confirms a Stanford Type B aortic dissection. Which of the following is the initial drug treatment of choice?
A.Intravenous nitroprusside alone
B.Intravenous labetalol
C.Intravenous hydralazine
D.Intravenous diltiazem
Explanation: For Stanford Type B aortic dissection, initial medical management focuses on heart rate and blood pressure control. Intravenous beta-blockers, specifically labetalol or esmolol, are first-line. Labetalol reduces both heart rate and blood pressure, lowering the shear stress (dP/dt) on the aortic wall. The target heart rate is < 60 bpm and systolic blood pressure is 100-120 mmHg.
3A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and ischemic heart disease presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 32%. She is currently taking enalapril 10 mg twice daily and carvedilol 25 mg twice daily. Her blood pressure is 125/75 mmHg, heart rate is 68 bpm, and eGFR is 45 mL/min/1.73m2. What is the most appropriate medication to add next to optimize her guideline-directed medical therapy?
A.Spironolactone
B.Dapagliflozin
C.Digoxin
D.Amlodipine
Explanation: SGLT2 inhibitors, such as dapagliflozin or empagliflozin, are now class I recommended therapies for all patients with HFrEF (LVEF <= 40%) regardless of the presence of diabetes. They reduce cardiovascular mortality and heart failure hospitalizations. Given her eGFR is 45 (which is above the threshold for initiation), adding dapagliflozin is the next logical step. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRAs) like spironolactone are also indicated, but SGLT2 inhibitors have shown rapid benefits and are highly recommended.
4A 24-year-old asymptomatic male is referred for evaluation after his older brother suffered sudden cardiac death at age 28. Echocardiography reveals asymmetric septal hypertrophy with a maximum wall thickness of 32 mm. No left ventricular outflow tract gradient is detected at rest. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
A.Reassure the patient and schedule a repeat echocardiogram in 5 years
B.Propose insertion of an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
C.Initiate therapy with high-dose beta-blockers
D.Refer for surgical septal myectomy
Explanation: This patient has Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM) with a high risk of sudden cardiac death (SCD). A maximum LV wall thickness >= 30 mm is an independent major risk factor for SCD. Along with the family history of SCD in a young first-degree relative, an ICD is strongly indicated for primary prevention of SCD.
5A 45-year-old active intravenous drug user presents with fever, chills, and a new murmur. Blood cultures grow Staphylococcus aureus in 3 out of 3 bottles. Echocardiography demonstrates a 12-mm mobile vegetation on the aortic valve with moderate aortic regurgitation. While hospitalized, he develops acute pulmonary edema. What is the most appropriate next step?
A.Add rifampicin to the current antibiotic regimen
B.Increase the dose of intravenous penicillin
C.Urgent surgical valve replacement
D.Perform repeat blood cultures and await results
Explanation: The patient has infective endocarditis complicated by acute heart failure (pulmonary edema) due to aortic regurgitation. Heart failure is the strongest indication for urgent surgery in infective endocarditis, overriding other criteria such as vegetation size. Delaying surgery carries a very high mortality risk.
6A 78-year-old woman with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis presents for management. She has severe dyspnea (NYHA Class III). Echocardiography shows an aortic valve area of 0.7 cm2 and a mean pressure gradient of 48 mmHg. Her Society of Thoracic Surgeons (STS) score is calculated at 9%, indicating high surgical risk. What is the preferred intervention?
A.Surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR)
B.Transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI)
C.Balloon aortic valvuloplasty as definitive therapy
D.Medical management with high-dose loop diuretics only
Explanation: In patients with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis who are at high surgical risk (STS score > 8% or age > 75), transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) is preferred over surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR) as it is associated with lower periprocedural mortality and faster recovery.
7A 58-year-old man presents with progressive shortness of breath. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals severe primary mitral regurgitation (MR) due to mitral valve prolapse (P2 flail leaflet). The left ventricular ejection fraction is 55% and the left ventricular end-systolic diameter (LVESD) is 42 mm. The patient is asymptomatic and can exercise normally. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A.Conservative outpatient follow-up every 12 months
B.Referral for mitral valve repair surgery
C.Initiate treatment with an ACE inhibitor
D.Transcatheter edge-to-edge repair (TEER) with MitraClip
Explanation: For patients with severe primary mitral regurgitation, surgery is indicated even in asymptomatic patients if there is evidence of early LV dysfunction, defined as LVEF <= 60% or LVESD >= 40 mm (Class I recommendation). Mitral valve repair is preferred over replacement when feasible.
8A 71-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents with palpitations. Her ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 115 bpm. She has no chest pain or dyspnea. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. What is the most appropriate long-term management strategy for stroke prevention?
A.Aspirin 81 mg daily
B.Aspirin 81 mg daily and clopidogrel 75 mg daily
C.Oral anticoagulation with a DOAC (e.g., apixaban)
D.No antithrombotic therapy is required
Explanation: The patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score is 4 (Age = 1, Female = 1, Hypertension = 1, Diabetes = 1). For patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score >= 2 in men or >= 3 in women, oral anticoagulation is strongly indicated to reduce the risk of stroke. Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are preferred over warfarin unless contraindicated.
9A 19-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of syncope, typically triggered by loud noises or sudden emotional stress. Her ECG reveals a QTc interval of 510 ms. Her genetic testing is positive for a KCNH2 mutation (LQT2). Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?
A.Amiodarone
B.Propranolol
C.Verapamil
D.Flecainide
Explanation: Beta-blockers, particularly nadolol or propranolol, are the cornerstone of therapy for congenital Long QT Syndrome (LQTS). They reduce the frequency of cardiac events by blunting sympathetic surges. Propranolol or nadolol are preferred for LQT1 and LQT2. Amiodarone is contraindicated as it prolongs the QT interval further.
10A 48-year-old man presents with progressive abdominal distension and peripheral edema. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure that increases during inspiration. A pericardial knock is heard on auscultation. Which of the following hemodynamic findings is most supportive of constrictive pericarditis rather than restrictive cardiomyopathy?
A.Discordance in ventricular pressure changes during respiration
B.Equalization of diastolic pressures in all four cardiac chambers
C.Marked elevation of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels
D.A 'dip and plateau' pattern in ventricular diastolic pressures
Explanation: Hemodynamic differentiation between constrictive pericarditis and restrictive cardiomyopathy is critical. Constrictive pericarditis is characterized by ventricular discordance (during inspiration, LV peak systolic pressure decreases while RV peak systolic pressure increases due to ventricular interaction within a fixed pericardial space). Restrictive cardiomyopathy shows ventricular concordance (both decrease or remain unchanged in tandem).

About the HKCP Intermediate Exam

This practice exam covers cardiology, renal medicine, respiratory, critical care, gastroenterology, hepatology, endocrinology, infectious diseases, neurology, and rheumatology.

Assessment

100 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

60%

Exam Fee

Free (Hong Kong College of Physicians)

HKCP Intermediate Exam Content Outline

20%

Cardiology & Renal Medicine

CAD, valvular heart disease, arrhythmias, hypertension, AKI, and CKD.

20%

Respiratory & Critical Care

COPD, asthma, ILD, pneumonia, acute respiratory failure, and ICU monitoring.

20%

Gastroenterology & Hepatology

Peptic ulcers, IBD, cirrhosis, hepatitis B/C, and GI bleeding.

20%

Endocrinology & Infectious Diseases

Diabetes, thyroid, adrenal axis, septic shock, tuberculosis, and HIV complications.

20%

Neurology & Rheumatology

Stroke, seizures, neuropathy, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and vasculitis.

How to Pass the HKCP Intermediate Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60%
  • Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: Free

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the HKCP Intermediate exam?

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.

What is the passing score for the HKCP Intermediate exam?

Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.