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100+ Free HKCFP Conjoint MCQ Practice Questions

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Sample HKCFP Conjoint MCQ Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your HKCFP Conjoint MCQ exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1According to the Hong Kong Reference Framework for Life Course Preventive Care in Primary Care, which of the following is recommended as the first-line maintenance therapy for a 65-year-old patient with stable COPD who has infrequent exacerbations (Group A)?
A.Short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) as needed only
B.A long-acting bronchodilator (LAMA or LABA)
C.Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) monotherapy
D.Combination of LABA and ICS
Explanation: For patients in Group A (stable COPD with infrequent exacerbations and low symptom burden), current guidelines and the Hong Kong Reference Framework recommend initiating maintenance therapy with a single long-acting bronchodilator, which can be either a Long-Acting Muscarinic Antagonist (LAMA) or a Long-Acting Beta2-Agonist (LABA). Short-acting bronchodilators are used as relievers but are not sufficient as sole maintenance therapy. ICS monotherapy is inappropriate for COPD, and LABA/ICS combination is reserved for patients with frequent exacerbations or asthma-COPD overlap.
2A 54-year-old patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and no history of cardiovascular disease presents for routine follow-up. Her blood pressure is consistently 136/84 mmHg across three clinic visits. According to the Hong Kong Reference Framework, what is the recommended blood pressure target for this patient?
A.Less than 140/90 mmHg
B.Less than 130/80 mmHg
C.Less than 120/80 mmHg
D.Less than 135/85 mmHg
Explanation: According to the Hong Kong Reference Framework for Common Chronic Diseases in Primary Care, the blood pressure target for patients with diabetes mellitus is less than 130/80 mmHg. Tight blood pressure control in diabetic patients is crucial to reduce the risk of macrovascular and microvascular complications.
3A 62-year-old man with Type 2 Diabetes has an eGFR of 28 mL/min/1.73m². He has been taking Metformin 1000 mg twice daily. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of his Metformin therapy?
A.Continue Metformin at the current dose of 1000 mg twice daily
B.Reduce Metformin dose to 500 mg twice daily
C.Discontinue Metformin
D.Switch Metformin to once-daily dosing with food
Explanation: Metformin is renally cleared and is associated with a risk of lactic acidosis. According to standard clinical guidelines (including HK Reference Framework and RACGP), Metformin is contraindicated in patients with an eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73m² and should be discontinued. For patients with eGFR between 30-45 mL/min/1.73m², a maximum dose of 1000 mg daily is recommended.
4A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes is found to have a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) of 12 mg/mmol on two occasions. Her eGFR is 52 mL/min/1.73m². Which class of antihypertensive medication is the first choice to manage her hypertension and chronic kidney disease?
A.Calcium channel blocker (CCB)
B.Thiazide-like diuretic
C.Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi) or Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
D.Beta-blocker
Explanation: For patients with chronic kidney disease (eGFR < 60 mL/min/1.73m² or urine ACR >= 3 mg/mmol) and diabetes, an ACEi or an ARB is the preferred first-line agent for blood pressure management. These agents provide renal protection by causing efferent arteriolar vasodilation, reducing intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria, independent of their systemic blood pressure-lowering effects.
5A 24-year-old female presents to your clinic with symptoms of mild intermittent asthma. According to the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines, which of the following is the recommended preferred controller and reliever strategy for adults?
A.As-needed short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) alone
B.Regular daily low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) plus as-needed SABA
C.As-needed low-dose combination ICS-formoterol
D.Daily low-dose ICS-formoterol as maintenance and reliever therapy
Explanation: GINA guidelines recommend as-needed low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)-formoterol as the preferred reliever for patients with mild asthma (Track 1). This strategy serves as both reliever and controller, significantly reducing the risk of severe exacerbations compared to SABA-only reliever use. SABA-only treatment is no longer the preferred reliever option due to risks associated with beta-agonist overuse and lack of anti-inflammatory protection.
6A 70-year-old male with chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, EF 32%) is clinically stable on optimal doses of Lisinopril, Bisoprolol, and Spironolactone. He remains in NYHA Class II. Which of the following medications has been shown to reduce mortality and should be added next as part of Guideline-Directed Medical Therapy (GDMT)?
A.Digoxin
B.Furosemide
C.SGLT2 inhibitor (e.g., Dapagliflozin)
D.Amlodipine
Explanation: The 'four pillars' of GDMT for HFrEF include an ARNI/ACEi/ARB, a beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA), and an SGLT2 inhibitor (such as Dapagliflozin or Empagliflozin). SGLT2 inhibitors have been shown to significantly reduce cardiovascular mortality and heart failure hospitalizations in patients with HFrEF, regardless of the presence of Type 2 Diabetes. Digoxin and Furosemide improve symptoms but do not reduce mortality, and Amlodipine has no mortality benefit in HFrEF.
7A 45-year-old Han Chinese man presents with a painful, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint consistent with acute gout. He is managed successfully with naproxen. He has normal renal function. Prior to initiating long-term uric acid-lowering therapy with Allopurinol, which genetic screening test should be considered in Hong Kong?
A.HLA-B*1502
B.HLA-B*5801
C.HLA-B*5701
D.G6PD status
Explanation: HLA-B*5801 screening is recommended in Han Chinese populations prior to starting Allopurinol. HLA-B*5801 is strongly associated with the development of Allopurinol-Induced Severe Cutaneous Adverse Reactions (SCARs), such as Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN). In patients who test positive, alternative agents like Febuxostat should be considered.
8A 72-year-old man presents with persistent knee pain due to osteoarthritis. He has a history of ischemic heart disease and peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological treatment according to current international and local guidelines?
A.Oral Naproxen with proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
B.Topical NSAIDs (e.g., Diclofenac gel)
C.Oral Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) scheduled daily
D.Oral Tramadol
Explanation: For osteoarthritis of the knee, topical NSAIDs are recommended as first-line pharmacological therapy over oral NSAIDs due to their localized efficacy and superior safety profile, with minimal systemic absorption. This is especially important for patients with high cardiovascular and gastrointestinal risk, such as this patient. Paracetamol is no longer strongly recommended as first-line therapy due to its marginal efficacy in clinical trials, and oral NSAIDs/opioids carry higher systemic risks.
9A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with Graves' disease and is initiated on Carbimazole therapy. During counselling, what is the most critical adverse effect she must be warned about, requiring immediate medical evaluation and a full blood count?
A.Mild pruritus and maculopapular rash
B.Agranulocytosis
C.Cholestatic jaundice
D.Drug-induced lupus erythematosus
Explanation: Agranulocytosis is a rare (0.2-0.5%) but life-threatening adverse effect of antithyroid drugs (Carbimazole, Methimazole, Propylthiouracil). Patients must be explicitly instructed to discontinue the drug immediately and seek urgent medical attention for a full blood count if they develop symptoms of infection, such as a sore throat, fever, or mouth ulcers.
10A 38-year-old asymptomatic male is found to be HBsAg positive during a routine pre-employment screen. His ALT is normal (22 U/L), and HBV DNA is 1,200 IU/mL. There is no evidence of cirrhosis on transient elastography. What is the recommended management plan for this patient?
A.Initiate Tenofovir immediately to prevent transmission
B.Initiate Entecavir immediately to prevent hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
C.Monitor ALT and HBV DNA every 3-6 months without antiviral therapy
D.Perform a liver biopsy to guide decision making
Explanation: This patient is in the inactive carrier phase (or HBeAg-negative chronic HBV infection) characterized by normal ALT, low HBV DNA (<2,000 IU/mL), and no significant liver fibrosis. Antiviral treatment is not indicated in this phase. The appropriate management is monitoring ALT and HBV DNA every 3-6 months to detect potential reactivation (ALT elevation and rising HBV DNA). A liver biopsy is unnecessary because transient elastography already confirmed the absence of significant fibrosis.

About the HKCFP Conjoint MCQ Exam

This practice exam covers chronic disease medicine, preventive health/screening, pediatric/maternal care, psychosocial/mental health, and practice management/ethics.

Assessment

100 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

60%

Exam Fee

Free (Hong Kong College of Family Physicians)

HKCFP Conjoint MCQ Exam Content Outline

20%

Chronic Disease Medicine

Hypertension, diabetes, asthma, COPD, and ischemic heart disease management in primary care.

20%

Preventive Health & Screening

Cancer screening, immunizations, cardiovascular risk scoring, and lifestyle counseling.

20%

Pediatric & Maternal Care

Well-child assessments, developmental milestones, antenatal monitoring, and family planning.

20%

Psychosocial & Mental Health

Depression, anxiety, somatization, smoking cessation, and family dynamics.

20%

Practice Management & Ethics

Clinical governance, medical ethics, patient consent, and local statutory guidelines.

How to Pass the HKCFP Conjoint MCQ Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60%
  • Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: Free

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the HKCFP Conjoint MCQ exam?

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.

What is the passing score for the HKCFP Conjoint MCQ exam?

Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.