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100+ Free HKCA Final MCQ Practice Questions

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Sample HKCA Final MCQ Practice Questions

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1During one-lung ventilation (OLV) for a thoracotomy, the patient's oxygen saturation (SpO2) falls to 88% despite ventilation with 100% oxygen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) of 5 cm H2O to the non-dependent lung.
B.Apply positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 10 cm H2O to the dependent lung.
C.Immediately clamp the pulmonary artery of the non-ventilated lung.
D.Increase the tidal volume of the dependent lung to 10 mL/kg.
Explanation: The first clinical step for hypoxemia during OLV is to check ETT/bronchial blocker position, then apply CPAP (e.g., 5 cm H2O) to the non-dependent (non-ventilated) lung. This supplies oxygen to the blood shunting through the collapsed lung, significantly reducing the shunt fraction. Dependent lung PEEP is also useful but CPAP to the non-dependent lung is more effective and specifically targets the shunt. Clamping the pulmonary artery is a surgical maneuver used as a last resort. High tidal volumes in the dependent lung should be avoided to prevent ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI) and increased shunt.
2A patient undergoing cesarean delivery under spinal anesthesia experiences severe postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. She has a history of mild pre-eclampsia. Which of the following uterotonic agents is relatively contraindicated in this patient?
A.Oxytocin
B.Ergometrine
C.Carboprost (Hemabate)
D.Misoprostol
Explanation: Ergometrine (or Syntometrine, which contains ergometrine) is an ergot alkaloid that causes vasoconstriction and can lead to severe hypertension, coronary artery spasm, and myocardial ischemia. It is relatively contraindicated in patients with hypertension, pre-eclampsia, and coronary artery disease. Carboprost is a prostaglandin F2-alpha analogue that causes bronchoconstriction and is contraindicated in asthmatics, not pre-eclampsia. Oxytocin and misoprostol are safe to use in pre-eclampsia.
3A 3-year-old child develops severe laryngospasm with complete airway obstruction during emergence from general anesthesia. Despite application of 100% oxygen with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and Larson's maneuver, the obstruction persists and bradycardia develops. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A.Administer intravenous atropine 20 mcg/kg.
B.Administer intravenous succinylcholine 1-2 mg/kg.
C.Perform emergency surgical cricothyrotomy.
D.Administer intravenous propofol 0.5 mg/kg.
Explanation: If laryngospasm does not respond to deepening of anesthesia, Larson's maneuver, and CPAP, the definitive management is neuromuscular blockade. Succinylcholine (1-2 mg/kg IV or 4 mg/kg IM) should be administered to relax the laryngeal muscles. In the presence of severe hypoxia and bradycardia, atropine (20 mcg/kg) is often given alongside succinylcholine, but the primary pathology is airway obstruction requiring relaxants. Cricothyrotomy is a last resort. Propofol (0.5-1 mg/kg IV) can treat partial laryngospasm but is less reliable than succinylcholine for severe, persistent spasm with bradycardia.
4A 75-year-old patient with severe asymptomatic aortic stenosis (valve area 0.7 cm², mean gradient 45 mmHg) requires urgent hip fracture surgery. Which of the following hemodynamic strategies is most appropriate during anesthesia?
A.Maintain systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and keep the heart rate between 50-70 bpm.
B.Target a mild tachycardia (heart rate 90-100 bpm) to maintain cardiac output.
C.Administer aggressive fluid boluses to maintain high preload.
D.Reduce afterload (SVR) by 20-30% using an esmolol infusion.
Explanation: In severe aortic stenosis, the cardiac output is fixed due to the stenotic valve. To maintain coronary perfusion pressure, it is critical to maintain systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and avoid hypotension. The heart rate should be kept slow-to-normal (50-70 bpm) to maximize diastolic filling time and reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Tachycardia reduces diastolic time and can precipitate myocardial ischemia. While preload must be maintained, aggressive fluids can cause pulmonary congestion. Vasodilators should be avoided because they drop afterload, which severe AS patients cannot compensate for.
5A patient with a traumatic brain injury is undergoing an emergency craniotomy. The surgeon requests hyperventilation to reduce brain swelling. What is the mechanism of this effect, and what is the recommended lower limit of PaCO2 to avoid cerebral ischemia?
A.Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia, leading to cerebral vasodilation; lower limit of PaCO2 is 25 mmHg (3.3 kPa).
B.Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia, leading to cerebral vasoconstriction; lower limit of PaCO2 is 30 mmHg (4.0 kPa).
C.Hyperventilation causes hypercapnia, leading to cerebral vasoconstriction; lower limit of PaCO2 is 35 mmHg (4.7 kPa).
D.Hyperventilation increases intrathoracic pressure, improving venous drainage; lower limit of PaCO2 is 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa).
Explanation: Hypocapnia causes cerebral vasoconstriction by raising extracellular pH in brain tissue, which reduces cerebral blood volume and intracranial pressure (ICP). However, extreme hypocapnia can cause cerebral ischemia. The current guidelines recommend avoiding hyperventilation in the first 24 hours unless there is acute herniation, and maintaining a lower PaCO2 limit of 30-35 mmHg (4.0-4.7 kPa) to prevent ischemia.
6A patient develops signs of Local Anaesthetic Systemic Toxicity (LAST) with cardiac arrest shortly after an ultrasound-guided interscalene brachial plexus block with 0.5% ropivacaine. According to the ASRA guidelines, which of the following is the correct dosing for lipid emulsion therapy?
A.20% Lipid emulsion: 1.5 mL/kg IV bolus over 1 minute, followed by an infusion of 0.25 mL/kg/min.
B.10% Lipid emulsion: 1.5 mL/kg IV bolus over 1 minute, followed by an infusion of 0.5 mL/kg/min.
C.20% Lipid emulsion: 0.25 mL/kg IV bolus over 5 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1.5 mL/kg/min.
D.20% Lipid emulsion: 5 mL/kg IV bolus, followed by an infusion of 1 mL/kg/min.
Explanation: The ASRA guidelines for LAST recommend using 20% lipid emulsion (Intralipid). The protocol is: an initial IV bolus of 1.5 mL/kg (lean body mass) over approximately 1 minute, followed immediately by a continuous infusion of 0.25 mL/kg/min. If cardiovascular stability is not restored, the bolus can be repeated, and the infusion rate can be increased to 0.5 mL/kg/min.
7A postpartum patient who suffered an accidental dural puncture with a 16-gauge Tuohy needle during a labor epidural insertion presents with a severe, debilitating post-dural puncture headache (PDPH). Conservative management has failed. Which of the following is correct regarding an autologous epidural blood patch (EBP)?
A.The patch is most effective if performed within the first 24 hours of the puncture.
B.The patch should be performed after 24 hours of the puncture, injecting 15-20 mL of autologous blood.
C.The patch should be performed with a target volume of 50 mL of autologous blood.
D.Autologous blood must be mixed with heparin to prevent early epidural clot formation.
Explanation: EBP has a higher failure rate if performed within the first 24 hours of dural puncture. It is highly effective (>85% success rate) when performed after 24 hours, using 15-20 mL of autologous blood injected under sterile conditions. Larger volumes (e.g., 50 mL) are associated with back pain and spinal cord compression. The blood should not be heparinized.
8During a general anesthetic with sevoflurane and succinylcholine, a patient develops unexplained tachycardia, tachypnea, masseter spasm, and a rapid rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2) to 85 mmHg. Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is suspected. Which of the following is the most urgent pharmacological treatment?
A.Administer intravenous dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg.
B.Administer intravenous calcium chloride 1 g to stabilize the cardiac membrane.
C.Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq to treat acidosis.
D.Infuse cold saline at 40 mL/kg.
Explanation: The primary, definitive treatment for malignant hyperthermia is dantrolene. The starting dose is 2.5 mg/kg IV, repeated as necessary (up to 10 mg/kg or more) until the symptoms (hypercapnia, tachycardia, rigidity) are controlled. Supportive measures like sodium bicarbonate, cooling, and calcium (for hyperkalemia) are important but secondary to dantrolene.
9A 22-year-old male with a large anterior mediastinal mass is scheduled for a diagnostic biopsy. He reports dyspnea when lying flat. What is the safest anaesthetic plan for this patient?
A.Inhalation induction with sevoflurane in the supine position.
B.Rapid sequence induction with propofol and rocuronium in the supine position.
C.Awake fiberoptic intubation followed by mechanical ventilation.
D.Maintenance of spontaneous ventilation, preferably under local anesthesia or ketamine/dexmedetomidine sedation.
Explanation: Patients with anterior mediastinal masses are at high risk of complete airway obstruction and cardiovascular collapse (due to compression of the tracheobronchial tree or superior vena cava/pulmonary artery) upon induction of general anesthesia, especially with neuromuscular blockade and positive pressure ventilation. The safest approach is to avoid general anesthesia if possible, performing the biopsy under local anesthesia with sedation. If general anesthesia is mandatory, spontaneous ventilation must be maintained, and a rigid bronchoscope should be available in the room.
10Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes postoperative delirium (POD) from postoperative cognitive dysfunction (POCD)?
A.POD is characterized by an acute, fluctuating change in mental status, whereas POCD is a long-term, subtle decline in cognitive performance.
B.POD is diagnosed using neuropsychological testing, while POCD is diagnosed clinically using the CAM scale.
C.POD occurs weeks to months after surgery, while POCD occurs in the immediate recovery period.
D.POD is solely caused by anesthetic agents, whereas POCD is caused by patient age and comorbidities.
Explanation: Postoperative delirium (POD) is an acute disturbance of consciousness, attention, and cognition that fluctuates over hours to days. It is diagnosed clinically (often using the Confusion Assessment Method, CAM). Postoperative cognitive dysfunction (POCD) is a subtle, long-term decline in cognitive function (memory, attention, concentration) that requires pre- and post-operative formal neuropsychological testing for diagnosis.

About the HKCA Final MCQ Exam

This practice exam covers clinical anaesthesia, intensive care, pain medicine, applied physiology/pharmacology, and professional standards/safety for the HKCA Final Fellowship.

Assessment

100 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

60%

Exam Fee

Free (Hong Kong College of Anaesthesiologists)

HKCA Final MCQ Exam Content Outline

20%

Clinical Anaesthesia

General anaesthesia, regional blocks, and airway management protocols.

20%

Intensive Care

Critical care medicine, mechanical ventilation, shock, and sepsis management.

20%

Pain Medicine

Acute postoperative pain, chronic pain syndromes, and interventional blocks.

20%

Applied Physiology & Pharmacology

Cardiovascular, respiratory, renal physiology, and pharmacodynamics of anaesthetic drugs.

20%

Professional Standards & Safety

Ethics, guidelines, equipment check, and crisis resource management.

How to Pass the HKCA Final MCQ Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60%
  • Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: Free

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the HKCA Final MCQ exam?

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.

What is the passing score for the HKCA Final MCQ exam?

Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.