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100+ Free CSHK Part 2 EMQ Practice Questions

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Sample CSHK Part 2 EMQ Practice Questions

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1A 34-year-old female presents with a 1.5 cm asymptomatic, firm nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid, discovered incidentally on carotid duplex ultrasound. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy (FNAB) yields Bethesda Category VI (papillary thyroid carcinoma). Ultrasound of the neck shows no evidence of cervical lymphadenopathy or extrathyroidal extension, and thyroid function tests are normal. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management?
A.Left thyroid lobectomy
B.Total thyroidectomy with bilateral routine prophylactic central neck dissection (Level VI)
C.Total thyroidectomy without central neck dissection
D.Active surveillance with serial neck ultrasounds every 6 months
Explanation: For low-risk papillary thyroid carcinomas (PTC) that are unifocal, < 4 cm, with no evidence of extrathyroidal extension, lymph node metastasis, or prior radiation history, a thyroid lobectomy is an acceptable and often preferred initial treatment option according to the American Thyroid Association (ATA) guidelines. It offers similar long-term survival outcomes to total thyroidectomy while significantly reducing the risk of complications such as permanent hypoparathyroidism and recurrent laryngeal nerve injury. Routine prophylactic central neck dissection is not recommended for T1/T2 low-risk PTC in the absence of clinical node involvement. Active surveillance is reserved for microcarcinomas (< 1 cm) under strict protocols.
2A 62-year-old postmenopausal female presents with recurrent nephrolithiasis, fatigue, and diffuse bone pain. Her serum calcium is 2.92 mmol/L (normal: 2.15-2.55 mmol/L), serum phosphate is 0.72 mmol/L (normal: 0.8-1.5 mmol/L), and intact parathyroid hormone (PTH) is elevated at 145 pg/mL (normal: 10-65 pg/mL). A dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan shows a T-score of -2.8 at the femoral neck. What is the most sensitive and widely used localizing study to plan a minimally invasive parathyroidectomy?
A.Technetium-99m sestamibi scintigraphy combined with SPECT/CT
B.High-resolution 4D-CT scan of the neck
C.High-resolution ultrasound of the neck
D.Selective venous sampling for PTH
Explanation: Technetium-99m sestamibi scintigraphy combined with Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography/Computed Tomography (SPECT/CT) is the most sensitive and widely accepted primary localization study for identifying parathyroid adenomas, particularly when planning a minimally invasive parathyroidectomy (MIP). It provides functional localization (retaining the radiotracer longer in hyperfunctioning parathyroid tissue than in the thyroid) coupled with precise anatomical localization. Ultrasound is also commonly used but is highly examiner-dependent. 4D-CT is highly sensitive and typically reserved as a second-line study for discordant primary imaging or reoperative cases. Selective venous sampling is invasive and used only in complex reoperative cases where non-invasive imaging fails.
3A 48-year-old female undergoes a left lumpectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy for an invasive ductal carcinoma. Pathology reveals a 2.2 cm tumor with clear surgical margins. Immunohistochemistry shows Estrogen Receptor (ER) negative, Progesterone Receptor (PR) negative, and Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2 (HER2) strongly positive (3+ by immunohistochemistry). The sentinel node biopsy is negative for metastatic disease (0/2 nodes). What adjuvant systemic therapy regimen is most appropriate for this patient?
A.Adjuvant chemotherapy combined with Trastuzumab followed by Trastuzumab monotherapy for a total of 1 year
B.Adjuvant endocrine therapy with Tamoxifen for 5 years
C.Adjuvant Trastuzumab emtansine (T-DM1) monotherapy for 14 cycles
D.No adjuvant systemic therapy is required given the lymph node-negative status
Explanation: For HER2-positive, hormone-receptor-negative (ER-/PR-) breast cancers larger than 1 cm (T2N0), standard adjuvant therapy consists of systemic chemotherapy combined with anti-HER2 targeted therapy (Trastuzumab) for a total duration of 1 year. The addition of Trastuzumab to chemotherapy significantly improves disease-free and overall survival in HER2-amplified breast cancers. Endocrine therapy is only effective for hormone-receptor-positive tumors. T-DM1 is indicated in the adjuvant setting only if patients have residual invasive disease after neoadjuvant systemic therapy. Systemic therapy is indicated for HER2-positive tumors > 1 cm even if lymph nodes are negative because of the aggressive biological nature of HER2-driven cancers.
4A 58-year-old male presents with progressive dysphagia, early satiety, and a weight loss of 8 kg over the past 3 months. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals a large, ulcerated mass in the gastric body. Biopsies confirm gastric adenocarcinoma. What is the most appropriate next step to assess for distant metastases and determine the initial management strategy?
A.Contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
B.Positron emission tomography (PET/CT) scan
C.Diagnostic laparoscopy with peritoneal washing
D.Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) of the upper GI tract
Explanation: The initial staging modality of choice for gastric cancer following endoscopic biopsy confirmation is a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis. This allows assessment of the primary tumor, regional lymph node involvement, and common sites of distant metastases (e.g. liver, lungs, peritoneum). Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) is useful for assessing T-stage and N-stage but is performed after distant metastases are ruled out. Diagnostic laparoscopy is highly sensitive for detecting occult peritoneal metastases (which are often missed by CT) and is performed before planning curative surgery, but CT remains the first-line staging scan. PET/CT is not routinely used as a first-line modality and is less sensitive for signet ring or mucinous adenocarcinomas.
5A 45-year-old diabetic female presents with a 24-hour history of severe, constant right upper quadrant pain, radiating to the right scapula, accompanied by nausea and low-grade fever (37.9°C). On examination, she has marked tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a positive Murphy's sign. Lab results show a white blood cell count of 14.8 x 10^9/L and mildly elevated C-reactive protein. Transabdominal ultrasound reveals a distended gallbladder with a thickened wall (5 mm), pericholecystic fluid, and multiple gallstones, with one impacted in the gallbladder neck. What is the most appropriate management?
A.Early laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 72 hours of symptom onset
B.Intravenous antibiotics and bowel rest, followed by elective interval cholecystectomy in 6 to 8 weeks
C.Emergent percutaneous transhepatic cholecystostomy tube placement
D.Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with biliary stenting
Explanation: According to the Tokyo Guidelines and multiple randomized clinical trials, early laparoscopic cholecystectomy (typically within 72 hours of symptom onset) is the treatment of choice for acute cholecystitis (Grade I or II) in patients who are fit for surgery. Early cholecystectomy reduces overall hospital stay, avoids the risk of recurrent attacks or progression during the interval period, and does not increase conversion or complication rates compared to delayed cholecystectomy. Conservative management with delayed interval cholecystectomy is associated with higher readmission rates for gallstone-related complications. Percutaneous cholecystostomy is reserved for severe acute cholecystitis (Grade III) or patients with high surgical risk/severe comorbidities who are unfit for urgent surgery. ERCP is indicated for suspected concurrent choledocholithiasis or acute cholangitis, not isolated acute cholecystitis.
6A 78-year-old female with a history of recurrent biliary colic presents with a 3-day history of progressive abdominal distention, colicky abdominal pain, and obstipation. On examination, she is dehydrated and has a distended, tympanitic abdomen with hyperactive bowel sounds. Plain abdominal radiograph reveals dilated small bowel loops with air-fluid levels, pneumobilia (gas in the biliary tree), and an oval radiopaque shadow in the right iliac fossa. What is the diagnosis and the most appropriate surgical treatment?
A.Gallstone ileus; enterolithotomy to extract the stone and inspection of the remaining bowel
B.Gallstone ileus; enterolithotomy, cholecystectomy, and simultaneous repair of the cholecystoenteric fistula
C.Bouveret syndrome; emergency diagnostic laparoscopy followed by loop ileostomy
D.Acute ascending cholangitis; urgent open common bile duct exploration and T-tube drainage
Explanation: This patient presents with gallstone ileus, a mechanical small bowel obstruction caused by a large gallstone that has entered the bowel via a cholecystoenteric fistula (usually cholecystoduodenal). The abdominal X-ray demonstrates Rigler's triad: pneumobilia, mechanical bowel obstruction, and an ectopic gallstone. The standard surgical treatment is enterolithotomy, which involves making a longitudinal enterotomy proximal to the site of obstruction (most commonly the terminal ileum), extracting the stone, and closing the bowel. The entire bowel must be run to check for additional stones. Simultaneous fistula repair and cholecystectomy are generally avoided in the acute, emergency setting due to high complication rates in elderly patients with significant inflammation, unless there is a specific, pressing indication.
7A 52-year-old male with severe acute necrotizing pancreatitis secondary to gallstones remains in the intensive care unit. On day 21, he develops high fevers (39.0°C), worsening leukocytosis (22.5 x 10^9/L), and hemodynamically unstable septic shock. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen reveals a large area of pancreatic necrosis (approximately 40%) in the pancreatic body and tail containing loculated gas bubbles. What is the most appropriate management strategy?
A.Broad-spectrum antibiotics followed by a step-up approach (percutaneous or endoscopic catheter drainage, then minimally invasive necrosectomy if no improvement)
B.Immediate open surgical debridement and necrosectomy with wide abdominal packing
C.Conservative management with targeted intravenous antibiotics and total parenteral nutrition (TPN) alone
D.Immediate endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with pancreatic duct stenting
Explanation: For patients with infected necrotizing pancreatitis (suggested by the presence of gas bubbles on CT and clinical deterioration/sepsis), the 'step-up approach' is the standard of care, as demonstrated by the PANTER trial. This approach begins with broad-spectrum antibiotics and minimally invasive drainage (either percutaneous under image guidance or endoscopic transluminal catheter drainage). This temporizes sepsis and resolves symptoms in up to 35-40% of patients without needing necrosectomy. If clinical improvement is not seen, the next step is minimally invasive necrosectomy (e.g. video-assisted retroperitoneal debridement [VARD] or endoscopic necrosectomy). Immediate open necrosectomy is associated with high morbidity, multi-organ failure, and mortality, and should be avoided in the acute phase.
8A 38-year-old male with a strong family history of colon cancer presents for genetic counseling. His father was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 42, and his paternal aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at age 45. Microsatellite instability (MSI) testing of his father's stored tumor specimen shows high microsatellite instability (MSI-H), and immunohistochemistry reveals loss of MSH2 and MSH6 protein expression. Which genetic condition does this pedigree most likely represent, and what is the gene defect?
A.Lynch syndrome; germline mutation in a DNA mismatch repair (MMR) gene
B.Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP); germline mutation in the APC gene
C.Li-Fraumeni syndrome; germline mutation in the TP53 gene
D.Peutz-Jeghers syndrome; germline mutation in the STK11 gene
Explanation: Lynch syndrome (formerly Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer, HNPCC) is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a germline mutation in one of the DNA mismatch repair (MMR) genes (MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2) or the EPCAM gene. It is characterized by an increased risk of colorectal cancer (typically right-sided and presenting at an early age) and extracolonic malignancies, most commonly endometrial cancer in females, as well as ovarian, gastric, small bowel, and transitional cell urothelial cancers. The presence of MSI-H and loss of MSH2/MSH6 expression on IHC strongly point to Lynch syndrome. FAP presents with hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps due to APC gene mutations. Li-Fraumeni involves TP53 mutations causing sarcomas, breast, and adrenal cancers. Peutz-Jeghers features hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous pigmentation due to STK11 mutations.
9A 68-year-old male is admitted with severe left lower quadrant abdominal pain, high fever (38.8°C), and worsening tachycardia. On physical examination, he has diffuse abdominal tenderness with guarding and rebound tenderness. Lab investigations show severe leukocytosis and acute kidney injury. An emergent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows pneumoperitoneum with extensive free fluid and inflammatory changes in the sigmoid colon, consistent with a perforated diverticulitis with purulent peritonitis (Hinchey Stage III). What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
A.Sigmoid colectomy with end colostomy and rectal stump closure (Hartmann's procedure)
B.Laparoscopic peritoneal lavage and placement of abdominal drains without resection
C.Sigmoid colectomy with primary anastomosis and defunctioning loop ileostomy
D.Primary suture repair of the perforated diverticulum and omental patching
Explanation: For patients with perforated diverticulitis presenting with purulent or feculent peritonitis (Hinchey Stage III or IV) who are hemodynamically unstable or have significant comorbidities, Hartmann's procedure (sigmoid colectomy with end colostomy and closure of the rectal stump) remains the traditional standard of care and safest option. It eliminates the septic source and avoids a high-risk primary anastomosis in an infected, inflamed abdomen. While primary anastomosis with a defunctioning loop ileostomy is increasingly considered in hemodynamically stable, younger patients without severe sepsis, Hartmann's is preferred in unstable septic patients. Laparoscopic lavage alone without resection was evaluated in trials (e.g. SCANDIV, LOLA) but showed higher rates of intra-abdominal abscesses and reinterventions, and is not recommended for Hinchey III/IV. Suture repair is not a recognized treatment for diverticular perforation.
10A 56-year-old male with a history of an open appendectomy 10 years ago presents with a 24-hour history of colicky abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, and abdominal distention. On examination, his abdomen is distended but soft, with mild diffuse tenderness and no signs of peritonitis. An abdominal X-ray shows dilated loops of small bowel with multiple air-fluid levels and no free gas. A CT scan of the abdomen confirms a mechanical small bowel obstruction with a transition point in the mid-ileum, likely due to adhesions, with no signs of bowel ischemia. What is the most appropriate initial management?
A.Conservative management with nasogastric tube decompression, intravenous fluids, and a Gastrografin challenge
B.Immediate exploratory laparotomy for adhesiolysis
C.Emergent diagnostic laparoscopy for band release
D.Administration of oral laxatives and prokinetics to promote bowel transit
Explanation: In patients with adhesive small bowel obstruction (SBO) who show no signs of clinical compromise, strangulation, or peritonitis (e.g. fever, persistent tachycardia, localized guarding, leukocytosis, or acidosis), initial non-operative management is the standard of care. This includes bowel rest (NPO), intravenous fluid resuscitation, correction of electrolyte imbalances, and nasogastric (NG) tube decompression. The administration of water-soluble contrast medium (such as Gastrografin) is both diagnostic and therapeutic; if the contrast reaches the colon on a follow-up X-ray within 8 to 24 hours, it predicts successful resolution of the obstruction in over 90% of cases and helps reduce the length of hospital stay. Immediate surgery is indicated if there are signs of bowel ischemia, strangulation, or if non-operative management fails after 24 to 72 hours. Oral laxatives are contraindicated in mechanical bowel obstruction.

About the CSHK Part 2 EMQ Exam

This practice exam covers general surgery, orthopedics, urology, vascular, cardiothoracic, pediatrics, neoplasia, and surgical emergencies/critical care.

Assessment

100 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

60%

Exam Fee

Free (College of Surgeons of Hong Kong)

CSHK Part 2 EMQ Exam Content Outline

20%

General Surgery Problems

Acute abdomen, gallstones, hernias, colorectal disease, and breast tumors.

20%

Orthopedic & Urological Problems

Bone fractures, joint infections, hematuria, renal stones, and prostate hypertrophy.

20%

Vascular & Cardiothoracic Problems

Aortic aneurysm, peripheral arterial disease, pneumothorax, and pleural effusion.

20%

Pediatric & Neoplastic Problems

Intussusception, pyloric stenosis, soft tissue sarcomas, and surgical oncology.

20%

Surgical Emergencies & Critical Care

Surgical ICU monitoring, major trauma resuscitation, septic shock, and multi-organ failure.

How to Pass the CSHK Part 2 EMQ Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60%
  • Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: Free

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the CSHK Part 2 EMQ exam?

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.

What is the passing score for the CSHK Part 2 EMQ exam?

Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.