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100+ Free GRE General Test Practice Questions

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The artist's later canvases were marked by a __________ that her earlier, more polished work lacked: rough brushstrokes, unpainted edges, and visible pentimento gave the surfaces a raw, unfinished energy. Choose the word that best fits the blank.

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: GRE General Test Exam

1 hour 58 minutes

Total testing time for the current (post-September 2023) GRE General Test

ETS

130–170 (V and Q), 0–6 (AW)

GRE score scales for Verbal Reasoning, Quantitative Reasoning, and Analytical Writing

ETS GRE Scoring

$220

GRE registration fee in the United States (as of 2024)

ETS

27 + 27 + 1 essay

GRE question counts: 27 Verbal, 27 Quantitative, 1 Analytical Writing essay

ETS GRE Content Structure

8–10 days

Time to receive official GRE scores after the test date

ETS

5 years

Length of time GRE scores are valid and reportable to programs

ETS

The GRE General Test, administered by ETS, is accepted by thousands of graduate and professional programs worldwide. The shortened format launched September 22, 2023, runs 1 hour 58 minutes — roughly half the length of the previous version (3 hours 45 minutes). Verbal Reasoning and Quantitative Reasoning are each scored on a 130–170 scale; Analytical Writing is scored 0–6 in half-point increments. The test is section-level adaptive: performance on the first section of each measure determines the difficulty of the second. Scores are available 8–10 days after the test and are valid for 5 years. The GRE costs $220 in the United States.

Sample GRE General Test Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your GRE General Test exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Read the following passage and answer the question. "The history of cartography reveals a fascinating paradox: the more accurate maps became, the more they were used as instruments of power rather than mere navigational aids. Early medieval maps centered Jerusalem at the world's core, reflecting theological rather than geographical priorities. By the age of exploration, Mercator's projection—though invaluable for sea navigation—systematically distorted the relative sizes of landmasses, enlarging Europe and North America while shrinking Africa and South America. Modern scholars argue that such distortions were not simply technical limitations but also carried ideological weight, subtly reinforcing the perceived centrality of certain civilizations." The passage primarily argues that:
A.Mercator's projection was deliberately designed to marginalize non-European nations
B.Map accuracy has always been less important than political considerations
C.Cartographic choices have historically encoded cultural and ideological assumptions
D.Medieval mapmakers were less skilled than Renaissance cartographers
Explanation: The passage argues that maps—from Jerusalem-centered medieval ones to Mercator's projection—reflect cultural and ideological priorities, not just technical accuracy. The author says distortions 'carried ideological weight,' making option C the best summary of the central argument.
2Read the passage and answer the question. "Epigenetics—the study of heritable changes in gene expression that do not involve alterations to the underlying DNA sequence—has unsettled the strict Mendelian framework that dominated genetics for much of the twentieth century. While Mendel's laws elegantly explain the transmission of discrete traits via alleles, they cannot account for phenomena such as genomic imprinting, where a gene's expression depends on which parent contributed it, or for the silencing of genes by methyl groups added to DNA strands. Critics of epigenetics' more ambitious claims, however, caution that many epigenetic marks are reset between generations and that the field sometimes overstates the heritability of environmentally acquired traits." The author's attitude toward epigenetics can best be described as:
A.Enthusiastically supportive of all its claims
B.Largely dismissive, viewing it as a fringe field
C.Nuanced, acknowledging its contributions while noting valid criticisms
D.Neutral, offering no evaluative stance whatsoever
Explanation: The author presents epigenetics as genuinely challenging Mendelian genetics (positive framing) but immediately voices critics who say the field overstates heritability—a balanced, nuanced stance. Neither pure enthusiasm nor dismissal fits the passage.
3Read the passage and answer the question. "Urban heat islands—metropolitan areas significantly warmer than surrounding rural zones—arise primarily from the replacement of vegetation with heat-absorbing impervious surfaces such as asphalt and concrete. Secondary contributors include waste heat from vehicles, air conditioners, and industrial processes. The effect is not merely uncomfortable: elevated urban temperatures increase electricity demand, worsen air quality via accelerated ozone formation, and disproportionately harm low-income communities that lack access to air conditioning. Mitigation strategies include green roofs, urban tree canopies, and cool pavements that reflect rather than absorb solar radiation." According to the passage, which of the following is cited as a PRIMARY cause of urban heat islands?
A.Increased ozone formation in city air
B.Waste heat from industrial machinery
C.Replacement of vegetation with impervious surfaces
D.Lack of air conditioning in low-income neighborhoods
Explanation: The passage explicitly states urban heat islands arise 'primarily from the replacement of vegetation with heat-absorbing impervious surfaces.' Waste heat is called a 'secondary contributor,' and the other options are effects or social consequences, not primary causes.
4Read the passage and answer the question. "For much of the twentieth century, behaviorism dominated academic psychology, reducing mental life to observable stimulus-response relationships and dismissing introspective accounts of consciousness as scientifically inadmissible. The cognitive revolution of the 1950s and 1960s rehabilitated internal mental states by treating the mind as an information-processing system—one that could be studied rigorously through reaction times, memory experiments, and computational models. Yet critics note that even cognitive science, in its classical form, risks reducing the richness of human experience to the manipulation of abstract symbols, leaving aside questions of emotion, embodiment, and social context that philosophers and phenomenologists had long considered central." The passage implies that cognitive science, in its classical form, is similar to behaviorism in that both:
A.Deny the existence of internal mental states
B.Rely exclusively on self-report data from participants
C.May fail to capture the full complexity of human experience
D.Are primarily concerned with emotional and social dimensions of behavior
Explanation: Behaviorism dismisses consciousness as inadmissible; classical cognitive science reduces experience to symbol manipulation. The implied parallel is that both approaches, despite their differences, may leave important aspects of human experience unexamined.
5The scientist's findings were initially met with __________, but subsequent replications by independent laboratories gradually __________ her original conclusions. Select the two words that best complete the sentence.
A.skepticism … corroborated
B.enthusiasm … undermined
C.indifference … anticipated
D.corroboration … challenged
Explanation: 'Skepticism' fits the initial doubt typical when new findings challenge existing views, and 'corroborated' means confirmed or supported—exactly what independent replications would do. The sentence describes a narrative arc from doubt to validation.
6The philosopher's prose was notoriously __________: even her admirers admitted that untangling a single paragraph often required the patience of a scholar willing to read the same sentences repeatedly. Choose the word that best fits the blank.
A.pellucid
B.abstruse
C.laconic
D.sycophantic
Explanation: 'Abstruse' means difficult to understand; obscure. This fits perfectly—the sentence says even admirers found her prose hard to parse. The clue 'untangling a single paragraph' signals complexity and opacity.
7Though the young diplomat was widely considered __________, her mentor warned that her willingness to voice unpopular positions in public forums could prove professionally damaging in the long run. Choose the word that best fits the blank.
A.truculent
B.indefatigable
C.perspicacious
D.obsequious
Explanation: 'Perspicacious' means having a ready insight into things; shrewd. The sentence praises her (considered X by 'widely') yet warns about bold speech—perspicacity fits because sharp thinkers who speak candidly are sometimes praised and sometimes penalized.
8The newly elected mayor's administration was marked by a(n) __________ approach to urban planning: she solicited input from residents, businesses, and civic organizations before making any major zoning decisions. Choose the word that best fits the blank.
A.autocratic
B.precipitate
C.consultative
D.parsimonious
Explanation: 'Consultative' means involving consultation or advice from others, which directly mirrors the described behavior of soliciting input from multiple groups before making decisions.
9The senator's speech was, at best, __________: it contained just enough factual content to appear substantive but was primarily designed to __________ the audience rather than to inform it. Choose the words that best complete both blanks (Blank 1, Blank 2).
A.specious … enlighten
B.tendentious … galvanize
C.cogent … mislead
D.pellucid … energize
Explanation: 'Tendentious' means expressing a particular point of view; biased. 'Galvanize' means to shock or excite someone into action. Together they convey a speech designed to move an audience emotionally/politically rather than to genuinely inform—fitting the 'at best' qualifier and the rhetorical purpose described.
10Read the passage and answer the question. "Game theory, pioneered by von Neumann and Morgenstern and later refined by Nash, models strategic interaction between rational agents. The Nash equilibrium—a state in which no player can improve their outcome by unilaterally changing strategy—became a cornerstone of economics, political science, and evolutionary biology. Critics, however, observe that real decision-makers frequently deviate from Nash equilibrium predictions: they cooperate in one-shot prisoner's dilemmas, punish free-riders at personal cost, and exhibit loss aversion. Behavioral economists argue that these anomalies do not invalidate game theory but rather call for more psychologically realistic models of rationality." The passage suggests that behavioral economists would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
A.Game theory is fundamentally flawed and should be abandoned.
B.Nash equilibrium accurately predicts human behavior in most real-world settings.
C.Human deviations from Nash predictions reveal the need to revise assumptions about rationality.
D.Loss aversion is the only significant bias that invalidates game-theoretic models.
Explanation: Behavioral economists are described as arguing that anomalies 'do not invalidate game theory but rather call for more psychologically realistic models of rationality.' This directly maps to option C—revise the rationality assumptions, not abandon the framework.

About the GRE General Test Exam

The GRE General Test is the world's most widely accepted standardized test for admission to graduate, business, and law school programs. Administered by ETS, it measures verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and analytical writing skills. Since September 2023, the test was shortened to approximately 1 hour and 58 minutes and now includes one Analytical Writing task ('Analyze an Issue'), two Verbal Reasoning sections totaling 27 questions, and two Quantitative Reasoning sections totaling 27 questions.

Questions

55 scored questions

Time Limit

1 hour 58 minutes

Passing Score

No pass/fail; scores reported as Verbal 130–170, Quantitative 130–170, Analytical Writing 0–6; competitive scores for top programs typically 160+ V, 165+ Q

Exam Fee

$220 (U.S.); varies internationally; fee reduction programs available (Educational Testing Service (ETS))

GRE General Test Exam Content Outline

1 essay / 30 min

Analytical Writing

One 'Analyze an Issue' essay. Test takers develop and defend their own position on a complex general-interest issue. Scored 0–6 in half-point increments by trained raters plus an automated system. The old 'Analyze an Argument' task was eliminated in September 2023.

27 questions / 41 min

Verbal Reasoning

Two adaptive sections (Section 1: 12 questions / 18 min; Section 2: 15 questions / 23 min). Question types include Reading Comprehension (passage-based), Text Completion (1–3 blanks with word-list choices), and Sentence Equivalence (choose 2 synonyms producing equivalent sentences). Scored 130–170.

27 questions / 47 min

Quantitative Reasoning

Two adaptive sections (Section 1: 12 questions / 21 min; Section 2: 15 questions / 26 min). Question types include Quantitative Comparison (compare two quantities), Multiple Choice (single and select-all-apply), and Numeric Entry. Covers arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and data analysis. On-screen calculator provided. Scored 130–170.

How to Pass the GRE General Test Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: No pass/fail; scores reported as Verbal 130–170, Quantitative 130–170, Analytical Writing 0–6; competitive scores for top programs typically 160+ V, 165+ Q
  • Exam length: 55 questions
  • Time limit: 1 hour 58 minutes
  • Exam fee: $220 (U.S.); varies internationally; fee reduction programs available

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

GRE General Test Study Tips from Top Performers

1Build GRE vocabulary systematically using spaced repetition: focus on high-frequency GRE words (abstruse, obdurate, equivocal, perspicacious) in context rather than memorizing isolated definitions.
2For Quantitative Comparison questions, try substituting special values (0, 1, −1, fractions, large numbers) when variables are present — if you get different results, the answer is D (indeterminate).
3Practice the 'Analyze an Issue' essay with a 5-minute outline: write a clear thesis, identify 2–3 specific supporting examples (historical, scientific, personal), and briefly acknowledge a counterargument before dismissing it.
4Use the on-screen calculator strategically for GRE Quant — it is useful for arithmetic but slower than mental math for simple calculations. Reserve it for multi-step decimal or percent problems.
5Take ETS's free POWERPREP practice tests under timed conditions to calibrate your pacing: you have roughly 1.5 minutes per Verbal question and 1.75 minutes per Quant question.

Frequently Asked Questions

How long is the current GRE General Test?

The GRE General Test launched on September 22, 2023, takes approximately 1 hour and 58 minutes to complete. This is roughly half the length of the pre-2023 version (3 hours 45 minutes). There are no breaks during the current test.

What sections are on the GRE General Test?

The current GRE has three sections: Analytical Writing (1 essay, 30 minutes), Verbal Reasoning (27 questions across 2 sections, 41 minutes total), and Quantitative Reasoning (27 questions across 2 sections, 47 minutes total). The 'Analyze an Argument' essay and unscored research section were removed in September 2023.

How is the GRE scored?

Verbal Reasoning and Quantitative Reasoning are each scored on a 130–170 scale in 1-point increments, giving a combined range of 260–340. Analytical Writing is scored 0–6 in half-point increments. Official scores are available 8–10 days after the test. Scores are valid for 5 years.

What is the GRE's section-level adaptive design?

For both Verbal and Quantitative Reasoning, the difficulty of the second section depends on your performance on the first section. If you perform well on Section 1, you receive a harder Section 2, which enables higher possible scores. All questions within a section contribute equally to the score, and 'equating' adjusts for difficulty differences between test editions.

How much does the GRE cost, and can I retake it?

The GRE costs $220 in the United States (international fees vary). Test takers can retake the GRE once every 21 days and up to 5 times within a 12-month period. ETS's ScoreSelect option lets you choose which scores (from the past 5 years) to send to programs.

What is a competitive GRE score?

A score of 160+ on Verbal Reasoning and 165+ on Quantitative Reasoning is generally competitive for top-20 graduate programs. The 75th percentile is approximately 158 Verbal and 167 Quantitative. For STEM programs, Quantitative scores are weighted more heavily; for humanities and law, Verbal and Analytical Writing scores matter more.