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Certificate of Fellowship of the European Board of Nuclear Medicine practice questions are available now; exam metadata is being verified.

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A trainee asks how long they have to complete both parts of the current FEBNM examination after starting the process. Which answer is correct based on the official facts provided?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: FEBNM Exam

2 parts

MCQ exam and Oral exam

https://eanm26.eanm.org/febnm-exam-2/

16 Oct 2026

2026 MCQ exam date

https://eanm26.eanm.org/febnm-exam-2/

16-17 Oct 2026

2026 Oral exam dates

https://eanm26.eanm.org/febnm-exam-2/

3 years

Maximum interval to complete both parts after MCQ pass

https://eanm26.eanm.org/febnm-exam-2/

3,000 + 100

Minimum documented diagnostic and therapeutic procedure counts

https://uems.eanm.org/wp-content/uploads/2025/11/MASTER_2026_FEBNM_application.pdf

EUR 250 / 600

2026 MCQ-only and MCQ-plus-Oral fees

https://eanm26.eanm.org/febnm-exam-2/

For current planning on 5 June 2026, eu-ebnm-exam should be treated as FEBNM, the Certificate of Fellowship of the European Board of Nuclear Medicine. Official facts include a two-part 2026 exam with MCQ onsite online and Oral onsite in person, Vienna dates of 16 October 2026 for MCQ and 16-17 October 2026 for Oral, standard application deadline of 3 May 2026, late deadline of 7 June 2026 if seats remain, a 3-year window to complete both parts, required 3,000 diagnostic and 100 therapeutic documented procedures, and official 2026 fees of EUR 250 for MCQ only or EUR 600 for MCQ plus Oral.

Sample FEBNM Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FEBNM exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which description best matches the current official identity of exam ID eu-ebnm-exam?
A.A generic European nuclear medicine technologist licensing examination
B.The UEMS/EBNM Certificate of Fellowship of the European Board of Nuclear Medicine (FEBNM)
C.A national board examination limited to one European Union member state
D.A continuing medical education quiz without a fellowship certificate outcome
Explanation: The official identity is the UEMS/EBNM Certificate of Fellowship of the European Board of Nuclear Medicine (FEBNM). It is not a generic technologist exam, a single-country board exam, or a CME-only quiz.
2A candidate is planning travel for the 2026 FEBNM examination. Which plan matches the official arrangement?
A.Remote MCQ on October 15, 2026 and remote oral on October 17, 2026
B.Onsite written essay exam on October 17, 2026 and oral exam in a separate city in November 2026
C.One combined practical examination on June 7, 2026 at Austria Center Vienna
D.Onsite online MCQ on October 16, 2026 and onsite in-person oral on October 16 and 17, 2026 at Austria Center Vienna during EANM'26
Explanation: For 2026, the exam has an onsite online MCQ written part on October 16 and an onsite in-person oral part on October 16 and 17 at Austria Center Vienna during EANM'26. The other options change the modality, date, or location.
3Which application timing statement is correct for the 2026 FEBNM examination?
A.The regular application deadline is May 03, 2026, with a late deadline of June 07, 2026 if seats remain.
B.The regular application deadline is June 07, 2026, and late applications are accepted until October 16, 2026 without restriction.
C.Applications close on October 17, 2026 after the oral examination begins.
D.There is no application deadline because registration occurs only onsite.
Explanation: The official regular deadline is May 03, 2026, and late application is possible until June 07, 2026 only if seats remain. The distractors either reverse the dates or imply unrestricted onsite registration.
4A physician passed the MCQ part in 2024 and applies in 2026 for the oral part only. Which fee category matches the official 2026 fee structure?
A.MCQ only, EUR 250
B.MCQ plus Oral, EUR 600
C.Oral only after MCQ passed in 2025-2023, EUR 350
D.Oral retake second try, EUR 200
Explanation: A candidate who passed the MCQ in 2025-2023 may apply for oral only at EUR 350; a 2024 MCQ pass falls within that window. EUR 250 is MCQ only, EUR 600 is for both parts, and EUR 200 is the second-try MCQ retake fee, not the oral-only fee.
5A candidate passed the FEBNM MCQ more than 3 years before the planned oral examination. What is the official consequence?
A.The oral examination can still be taken without restriction because MCQ success never expires.
B.The candidate may take only a shorter oral examination.
C.The candidate must redo the MCQ because both parts must be completed within 3 years.
D.The candidate is permanently excluded from future FEBNM examinations.
Explanation: Both parts must be completed within 3 years; if the interval from successful MCQ to oral exceeds 3 years, the MCQ must be repeated. This is a repeat requirement, not permanent exclusion or a modified oral format.
6Which application package most closely matches the official FEBNM requirements?
A.Country/date of Nuclear Medicine national board certificate or equivalence documents, CV, specialist/training certificates, detailed procedure list, CME description, and MCQ pass attestation if applying oral-only
B.Curriculum vitae only, because procedure numbers are assessed at the oral examination
C.Proof of attendance at EANM'26 only, with no requirement for certificates or procedure documentation
D.A log of 300 diagnostic procedures and 10 therapies, with no supporting certificates
Explanation: The application requires professional certification or equivalence evidence, CV, certificates, procedure documentation, CME description, and an MCQ pass attestation for oral-only candidates. The documented minimum is 3,000 diagnostic and 100 therapeutic procedures, not 300 and 10.
7During planar imaging of I-131 with a gamma camera fitted with a low-energy high-resolution collimator, the image shows severe septal penetration and star-like artifacts. What is the best technical correction?
A.Narrow the Tc-99m photopeak window to 5 percent.
B.Move the patient farther from the collimator to improve resolution.
C.Acquire fewer counts to reduce septal penetration.
D.Use a high-energy collimator appropriate for the photon energy.
Explanation: I-131 high-energy photons penetrate thin low-energy septa, producing artifacts and degraded contrast; a high-energy collimator has thicker septa designed for this energy. Window narrowing or fewer counts does not solve septal penetration, and increasing distance worsens geometric resolution.
8A Tc-99m acquisition uses a 140 keV photopeak window. What is the main reason scattered photons are preferentially detected below the photopeak?
A.Pair production in the crystal converts 140 keV photons into 511 keV photons.
B.Compton scattering in the patient reduces photon energy before detection.
C.The photomultiplier tubes amplify only low-energy photons.
D.The collimator increases photon energy by absorbing septal electrons.
Explanation: Compton scatter transfers part of the photon energy to an electron, so the scattered photon usually reaches the detector with lower energy and altered direction. Pair production is not relevant at 140 keV, and neither PMTs nor collimators increase photon energy.
9For a parallel-hole collimator, which statement about resolution and sensitivity is most accurate?
A.Spatial resolution improves as the source moves farther from the collimator face.
B.Spatial resolution worsens as source-to-collimator distance increases, while sensitivity is approximately distance independent for an extended uniform source.
C.Sensitivity becomes zero at distances greater than one focal length.
D.Increasing hole diameter improves resolution without changing sensitivity.
Explanation: With parallel-hole collimators, geometric blur increases with distance from the collimator, degrading resolution. Sensitivity is mainly determined by collimator geometry and is roughly distance independent for typical parallel-hole imaging; larger holes increase sensitivity but degrade resolution.
10A SPECT study reconstructed from a camera with an uncorrected center-of-rotation error is most likely to show which artifact?
A.Uniform global increase in measured activity concentration only
B.Complete absence of attenuation in all projections
C.A pure low-energy tail on the energy spectrum without spatial distortion
D.Ring, crescent, or duplicated-edge artifacts in transaxial slices
Explanation: Center-of-rotation mismatch causes projection data to be backprojected to the wrong positions, often producing rings, crescents, or duplicated edges. It is a spatial reconstruction problem, not merely a spectrum abnormality or uniform calibration shift.

About the FEBNM Practice Questions

Verified exam format metadata for Certificate of Fellowship of the European Board of Nuclear Medicine is pending. The practice questions above remain available while official exam length, timing, passing score, fee, and administrator details are reviewed.