93+ Free Medicinske fagprøver for læger Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Medicinske fagprøver for læger Exam

0 DKK

Examination fees are fully funded by Styrelsen for Patientsikkerhed under BEK nr. 1004 § 26.

Styrelsen for Patientsikkerhed

4 hours

Duration of the computer-based written medical examination administered at KU SUND.

Københavns Universitet

Minimum passing grade on the Danish 7-point scale (7-trinsskalaen) for the written exam.

KU SUND Studieordning

8-10 stations

Number of practical patient stations in the 2-hour clinical OSCE examination (MFTL).

Københavns Universitet

Max 3

Maximum number of attempts permitted for each part of the licensing examination.

BEK nr. 1004 af 28/08/2024

Prøve i Dansk 3

Mandatory Danish language qualification with minimum grades 10 oral, 7 reading, 7 writing.

Styrelsen for Patientsikkerhed

12 months

Duration of mandatory hospital evaluation employment (evalueringsansættelse) after passing exams.

Styrelsen for Patientsikkerhed

Number of reviewed English-language clinical MCQ practice questions provided in this bank.

OpenExamPrep

Medicinske fagprøver for læger comprise a 4-hour Danish-language written exam and an 8-10 station practical OSCE at Københavns Universitet. The exams are free, while the separate STPS application fee is 3,689 DKK in 2026. Passing the written exam with grade 02 or higher is required to progress. These 93 English-language MCQs are an independent study adaptation, not an official test simulation.

Sample Medicinske fagprøver for læger Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Medicinske fagprøver for læger exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 93+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe, crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to his left jaw that started 75 minutes ago. His blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, pulse is 88 bpm, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. A 12-lead ECG demonstrates 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST-segment depression in leads I and aVL. The nearest percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) center is located 25 minutes away. What is the most appropriate immediate reperfusion strategy?

A.Immediate transfer for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

B.Immediate administration of intravenous fibrinolytic therapy (tenecteplase) before transfer

C.Urgent coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) within 24 hours

D.Admission to the cardiology ward for serial high-sensitivity troponin monitoring and elective angiography

Explanation: Primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy in patients presenting with acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) provided it can be performed within 120 minutes of STEMI diagnosis. In this patient, the transfer time is 25 minutes, well within the 120-minute guideline threshold. Intravenous fibrinolysis is reserved for situations where anticipated PCI-mediated reperfusion cannot be accomplished within 120 minutes of diagnosis.

2A 55-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy has chronic NYHA class II heart failure symptoms. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 32%. He is currently receiving ramipril 5 mg daily and bisoprolol 5 mg daily. His blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, pulse is 64 bpm, serum potassium is 4.3 mmol/L, and eGFR is 72 mL/min/1.73 m2. According to international and Danish guidelines for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), which combination represents the full four-pillar guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) that reduces overall mortality?

A.ACE inhibitor/ARNI, beta-blocker, digoxin, and loop diuretic

B.Beta-blocker, calcium channel blocker, nitrate, and hydralazine

C.ARNI (or ACE inhibitor), beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA), and SGLT2 inhibitor

D.ACE inhibitor, aldosterone antagonist, ivabradine, and long-acting nitrate

Explanation: The foundational four-pillar pharmacotherapy for HFrEF (LVEF <= 40%) proven to reduce cardiovascular mortality and heart failure hospitalizations consists of: 1) an Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI) or ACE inhibitor, 2) an evidence-based beta-blocker (bisoprolol, carvedilol, or metoprolol succinate), 3) a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone), and 4) an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin).

3A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with severe dyspnea, orthopnea, and cough productive of pink frothy sputum. Physical examination reveals tachypnea (respiratory rate 32 bpm), oxygen saturation 86% on room air, blood pressure 170/100 mmHg, bilateral basal crackles extending halfway up both lung fields, and jugular venous distension. What is the most appropriate first-line medical intervention?

A.Immediate intravenous beta-blocker bolus and calcium chloride

B.High-dose intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and fluid bolus

C.Intravenous aminophylline infusion and subcutaneous terbutaline

D.Supplemental oxygen, intravenous loop diuretic (furosemide), and consideration of intravenous nitrate

Explanation: This patient is in acute decompensated heart failure with cardiogenic pulmonary edema and hypertension. Immediate initial management entails supplemental oxygen (or non-invasive positive pressure ventilation if in respiratory distress), intravenous loop diuretics (e.g., furosemide) to reduce preload through venodilation and subsequent diuresis, and intravenous vasodilators (such as nitroglycerin) to reduce afterload given her elevated blood pressure.

4A 67-year-old male with a history of well-controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes is found to have newly documented, asymptomatic paroxysmal atrial fibrillation on an ambulatory 24-hour Holter monitor. His echocardiogram shows normal left ventricular systolic function and mild left atrial enlargement. His calculated CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3 (Age 65-74 = 1, Hypertension = 1, Diabetes = 1). What is the recommended long-term stroke prevention strategy?

A.Oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban or rivaroxaban

B.Antiplatelet monotherapy with acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 75 mg daily

C.Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel

D.No antithrombotic therapy because the atrial fibrillation is paroxysmal and asymptomatic

Explanation: This patient has three non-sex stroke-risk factors (age 65-74, hypertension, and diabetes), so long-term oral anticoagulation is recommended. Current European guidance uses the CHA2DS2-VA score, which omits sex category; this patient's score is still 3. Direct oral anticoagulants (apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, or rivaroxaban) are generally preferred over vitamin K antagonists in eligible patients. The need for stroke prevention does not disappear because atrial fibrillation is paroxysmal or asymptomatic.

5A 74-year-old woman is admitted with palpitations and fatigue. Her ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response of 142 bpm. Her blood pressure is 132/84 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 98% on room air, and she has no peripheral edema or pulmonary rales. Echocardiography shows preserved left ventricular ejection fraction (55%). What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic agent for acute rate control?

A.Intravenous amiodarone infusion

B.Intravenous or oral beta-blocker (e.g., metoprolol) or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (diltiazem/verapamil)

C.Intravenous digoxin loading dose as monotherapy

D.Immediate electrical synchronized cardioversion without sedation

Explanation: In hemodynamically stable atrial fibrillation with preserved left ventricular systolic function, first-line rate control is achieved using beta-blockers (such as metoprolol) or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (diltiazem or verapamil). Digoxin has a slow onset of action and is ineffective during high sympathetic tone. Amiodarone is reserved for refractory cases or patients with severe heart failure.

6A 58-year-old man is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for persistently elevated blood pressure. On three separate occasions, his clinic blood pressure averages 164/102 mmHg. Laboratory testing shows normal serum electrolytes, eGFR 85 mL/min/1.73 m2, and mild microalbuminuria (urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 8 mg/mmol). He has no prior cardiovascular events. According to current hypertension guidelines, what is the recommended initial antihypertensive pharmacotherapy?

A.Monotherapy with a loop diuretic such as furosemide 40 mg once daily

B.Monotherapy with an alpha-blocker such as doxazosin 4 mg once daily

C.Initial combination therapy with an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) plus a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic

D.Lifestyle modification alone for 12 months before initiating pharmacologic treatment

Explanation: Current European and Danish hypertension guidelines recommend initiating antihypertensive treatment with a two-drug combination in most patients with stage 2 hypertension (SBP >= 160 or DBP >= 100 mmHg), preferably as a single-pill combination. The preferred combination comprises a renin-angiotensin system inhibitor (ACE inhibitor or ARB) combined with either a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (e.g., amlodipine) or a thiazide/thiazide-like diuretic (e.g., indapamide). ACE inhibitors and ARBs also provide renal protection for microalbuminuria.

7A 78-year-old man presents following a syncopal episode that occurred while walking briskly up a hill. Over the past four months, he has noticed progressive shortness of breath and chest pressure on exertion. Examination reveals a slow-rising, low-volume carotid pulse (pulsus parvus et tardus) and a harsh, crescendo-decrescendo late-peaking systolic murmur heard loudest at the right second intercostal space with radiation to both carotid arteries. Which diagnostic investigation is the gold standard next step to confirm the suspected underlying pathology?

A.24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

B.Exercise treadmill stress testing

C.High-resolution chest computed tomography

D.Transthoracic echocardiography

Explanation: The clinical triad of exertional dyspnea, angina, and exertional syncope accompanied by pulsus parvus et tardus and a harsh systolic ejection murmur radiating to the carotids is classic for severe aortic valve stenosis. Transthoracic echocardiography is the gold standard diagnostic test to assess aortic valve morphology, transvalvular peak velocity, mean gradient, and aortic valve area (severe when area < 1.0 cm2 or mean gradient >= 40 mmHg).

8A 45-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use presents with a two-week history of remittent fevers, night sweats, and anorexia. Physical examination reveals a new grade 3/6 regurgitant murmur at the lower left sternal border, splinter hemorrhages beneath the fingernails, and retinal hemorrhages with pale centers (Roth spots). Which immediate diagnostic action must be taken prior to initiating empiric antimicrobial therapy?

A.Draw at least three sets of blood cultures from separate venipunctures spaced over time

B.Perform an immediate lumbar puncture to examine cerebrospinal fluid

C.Administer high-dose intravenous dexamethasone

D.Perform urgent computed tomography of the coronary arteries

Explanation: The clinical presentation meets multiple modified Duke criteria for infective endocarditis (fever, predisposing IV drug use, new valvular regurgitation murmur, and vascular/immunologic phenomena). Obtaining at least three sets of blood cultures from separate venipuncture sites before starting antimicrobial therapy is critical to identify the causative organism and guide targeted bactericidal treatment.

9A 32-year-old previously healthy man presents with sharp anterior chest pain that worsens during deep inspiration and when lying supine, but improves significantly upon sitting forward. On auscultation, a high-pitched superficial scratching sound is audible along the lower left sternal border. The 12-lead ECG demonstrates widespread concave ST-segment elevation with PR-segment depression in multiple leads, together with reciprocal ST-segment depression and PR-segment elevation in aVR. What is the recommended first-line medical therapy?

A.Low-dose aspirin 75 mg daily and sublingual nitroglycerin as needed

B.High-dose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen combined with colchicine

C.Immediate intravenous unfractionated heparin and cardiac catheterization

D.Oral broad-spectrum fluoroquinolone antibiotics for 14 days

Explanation: The clinical picture, pericardial friction rub, and classic widespread concave ST-elevation with PR-segment depression are pathognomonic for acute pericarditis. First-line therapy consists of high-dose NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen 600 mg every 8 hours) or aspirin combined with weight-adjusted colchicine (0.5 mg once or twice daily for 3 months), which accelerates symptom resolution and halves the rate of recurrent pericarditis.

10A 26-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of frequent bloody diarrhea (6-8 bowel movements daily), urgency, tenesmus, and crampy lower abdominal pain. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows continuous, circumferential erythema, friability, granular mucosal texture, and superficial ulceration starting at the anal verge and extending continuously to the proximal descending colon, where sharp demarcation into normal mucosa is noted. Full-thickness biopsies demonstrate mucosal inflammation confined to the mucosa and submucosa with crypt abscesses. Which diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?

A.Celiac disease

B.Crohn disease

C.Ulcerative colitis

D.Ischemic colitis

Explanation: Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous mucosal inflammation starting at the rectum and extending proximally without skip lesions, confined primarily to the mucosa and submucosa, with histological features of cryptitis and crypt abscesses. Crohn disease typically features patchy, transmural inflammation, skip lesions, cobblestoning, and non-caseating granulomas anywhere along the GI tract.

About the Medicinske fagprøver for læger Exam

Medicinske fagprøver for læger is the state-mandated medical licensing assessment in Denmark for physicians educated outside the EU/EEA seeking Danish authorization (autorisation som læge). Administered on behalf of Styrelsen for Patientsikkerhed by the Faculty of Health and Medical Sciences at the University of Copenhagen (KU SUND), it consists of a 4-hour Danish-language written medical paper testing clinical knowledge and judgment, followed by an 8-10 station practical clinical OSCE. This practice bank provides 93 English-language four-option multiple-choice questions aligned with the official study order. Practice Adaptation Disclosure: these questions are an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation, not an official Danish translation, not a simulation of the written paper or OSCE, and not a substitute for Danish communication or clinical-performance practice.

Assessment

Two-stage medical assessment: Stage 1 is a 4-hour computer-based written exam held twice yearly (March and September) at Københavns Universitet, evaluated on the Danish 7-point scale with pass mark 02. Stage 2 is an approximately 2-hour OSCE practical exam (MFTL, 8-10 stations) held twice yearly, evaluated pass/fail. The authorization path also requires a Danish-language online health-law course with five modules and a 20-question final digital test; candidates need 18 correct and have three attempts.

Time Limit

Written exam: 4 hours. Oral OSCE exam: approximately 2 hours.

Passing Score

Grade 02 on the Danish 7-point scale (7-trinsskalaen) for the written exam; Pass (bestået) for the oral OSCE (MFTL)

Exam Fee

The medical examinations are free. The separate 2026 STPS application fee for authorization and permission to practise independently is 3,689 DKK. (Styrelsen for Patientsikkerhed (STPS) & Det Sundhedsvidenskabelige Fakultet, Københavns Universitet (KU SUND))

Medicinske fagprøver for læger Exam Content Outline

28 practice questions

Internal Medicine

Clinical diagnosis, acute management, and pharmacotherapy across cardiology, gastroenterology, hepatology, nephrology, infectious diseases, endocrinology, pulmonology, hematology, and rheumatology.

19 practice questions

Surgery

Acute abdomen triage, surgical emergencies, gastrointestinal perforations, bowel obstruction, orthopedics, trauma management, compartment syndrome, vascular emergencies, and acute urology.

14 practice questions

Pharmacology & Toxicology

Pharmacokinetics, hepatic and renal clearance adjustments, empiric antimicrobial stewardship, direct oral anticoagulants, drug reversals, and acute toxicological ingestions.

13 practice questions

Pediatrics, Obstetrics & Gynecology

Acute pediatric respiratory care and other emergencies, dehydration, preeclampsia, postpartum hemorrhage, and ectopic pregnancy management.

9 practice questions

Neurology & Psychiatry

Acute ischemic stroke pathways, status epilepticus termination, acute psychosis, depression and suicidality risk assessment, and delirium differentials.

10 practice questions

Emergency Medicine, Resuscitation & Danish Health Law

Advanced Life Support (ERC/Dansk Råd for Genoplivning), reversible cardiac arrest causes (4 Hs & 4 Ts), shock resuscitation, Sundhedsloven informed consent and blood refusal (§§ 15-24), Autorisationsloven professional diligence (§ 17), and mandatory reporting duties.

How to Pass the Medicinske fagprøver for læger Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Grade 02 on the Danish 7-point scale (7-trinsskalaen) for the written exam; Pass (bestået) for the oral OSCE (MFTL)
Assessment: Two-stage medical assessment: Stage 1 is a 4-hour computer-based written exam held twice yearly (March and September) at Københavns Universitet, evaluated on the Danish 7-point scale with pass mark 02. Stage 2 is an approximately 2-hour OSCE practical exam (MFTL, 8-10 stations) held twice yearly, evaluated pass/fail. The authorization path also requires a Danish-language online health-law course with five modules and a 20-question final digital test; candidates need 18 correct and have three attempts.
Time limit: Written exam: 4 hours. Oral OSCE exam: approximately 2 hours.
Exam fee: The medical examinations are free. The separate 2026 STPS application fee for authorization and permission to practise independently is 3,689 DKK.

Keys to Passing

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Medicinske fagprøver for læger Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master standard Danish clinical guidelines and hospital flowcharts, particularly regional guidelines (VIP/PRI) for acute cardiology, sepsis bundles, and surgical triage.

2Review the European Resuscitation Council (ERC) and Dansk Råd for Genoplivning algorithms for cardiac arrest, shockable/non-shockable rhythms, and reversible causes (4 Hs and 4 Ts).

3Focus intensely on antibiotic stewardship protocols used in Danish hospitals, emphasizing narrow-spectrum penicillins for standard community infections and targeted escalation.

4Thoroughly review Danish health legislation, including Sundhedsloven §§ 15-24 on consent, emergencies, and refusal of blood, plus the current child-notification rules in Barnets Lov § 133.

5Practice clinical decision-making with strict time management to ensure comfort navigating complex patient cases within the 4-hour written exam constraint.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the structure of the Danish medical authorization examinations (Medicinske Fagprøver)?

The examination is divided into two distinct components administered by Københavns Universitet (KU SUND): a 4-hour computer-based written exam held in March and September, and an approximately 2-hour clinical OSCE examination (Medicinsk Fagprøve Tildeling af Lægeautorisation, MFTL) held in May and December featuring 8 to 10 practical clinical stations. In addition, candidates must complete an online 5-module e-learning Course in Danish Health Legislation (Kursus i dansk sundhedslovgivning).

What is the passing standard and grading scale for the written and practical examinations?

The written medical examination is evaluated using the Danish 7-point grading scale (7-trinsskalaen: 12, 10, 7, 4, 02, 00, -3), where a grade of 02 is the minimum passing grade. Candidates must pass the written examination before they are permitted to register for the clinical OSCE. The clinical OSCE examination is evaluated on a binary pass/fail (bestået/ikke-bestået) standard.

How much does it cost to take the Danish medical authorization examination?

The medical examinations are free for eligible candidates. The separate 2026 STPS fee for an application covering authorization and permission to practise independently is 3,689 DKK; travel, accommodation, and language-test costs are separate.

How many examination attempts are permitted for foreign-trained physicians?

Under BEK nr. 1004 af 28/08/2024 § 5, candidates are allowed a maximum of three (3) examination attempts for the written medical exam and a maximum of three (3) attempts for the practical clinical OSCE. Exceeding three failed attempts terminates the Danish medical licensing pathway.

Are these practice questions an official Danish exam simulation?

No. These questions are an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation designed for international medical graduates preparing for the Danish curriculum. The official written examination at Københavns Universitet is conducted in Danish, and candidates must have passed the Danish language exam Prøve i Dansk 3 with specified minimum grades (10 in oral, 7 in reading, 7 in writing) prior to entering the clinical licensing pathway.