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100+ Free CISI PCIAM Practice Questions

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When a client has both a mortgage at 6% and surplus cash earning 2% net, an adviser considering the client's overall position might suggest, subject to suitability and emergency reserves:

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CISI PCIAM Exam

Level 6

Ofqual RQF Level

CISI PCIAM Qualification Page

3 hours

Written Narrative Exam

CISI PCIAM Factsheet

100 marks

Sections A 40, B 20, C 40

CISI PCIAM Factsheet

203 hrs

Total Qualification Time

CISI PCIAM Qualification Page

Not MCQ

Short-Answer, Essay, Case Study

CISI PCIAM Factsheet

CISI

Awarding Body

Chartered Institute for Securities & Investment

PCIAM is the CISI Level 6 Certificate in Private Client Investment Advice & Management, recognised by Ofqual on the RQF. It is achieved by passing one three-hour written narrative exam worth 100 marks: Section A short-answer questions (40 marks), a Section B essay from three options (20 marks), and Section C short-answer, essay and case study (40 marks). It is NOT a multiple-choice exam. CISI sets the total qualification time at 203 hours and a mandatory workbook must be purchased when booking. CISI does not publish a fixed pass mark or pass rate. Our 100 practice questions are MCQ knowledge-prep mapped to the syllabus to build recall before the written exam.

Sample CISI PCIAM Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CISI PCIAM exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Within the PCIAM advice process, what is the primary purpose of the 'know your customer' (KYC) and fact-find stage before any portfolio recommendation is made?
A.To gather and document the client's financial circumstances, objectives, knowledge, experience and capacity for loss so advice can be assessed as suitable
B.To calculate the adviser's ongoing fee based on assets under management
C.To satisfy HMRC reporting obligations for income tax
D.To select a benchmark index for performance measurement only
Explanation: KYC and the fact-find collect the personal and financial information, objectives, risk attitude, capacity for loss, and relevant knowledge and experience that underpin a suitability assessment. Under FCA COBS rules, a personal recommendation cannot be made suitable without this foundation.
2A private client states they could not tolerate any fall in their capital over the next 12 months because the funds are needed for a house purchase. In suitability terms, this primarily relates to which factor?
A.The client's attitude to risk
B.The client's capacity for loss
C.The client's tax position
D.The client's investment knowledge and experience
Explanation: Capacity for loss is the client's objective ability to absorb falls in capital without a material impact on their standard of living or stated goals. A near-term, non-negotiable spending need means low capacity for loss, regardless of how the client feels about risk emotionally.
3Under the FCA Consumer Duty, which of the following is the overarching Consumer Principle that firms must follow?
A.A firm must treat customers fairly
B.A firm must maximise shareholder value
C.A firm must act to deliver good outcomes for retail customers
D.A firm must avoid all investment losses for clients
Explanation: The Consumer Duty introduced Principle 12: a firm must act to deliver good outcomes for retail customers. This sits above the three cross-cutting rules and four outcomes and raises the standard from the former 'treating customers fairly' approach.
4Which four outcomes does the FCA Consumer Duty require firms to evidence for retail customers?
A.Profit; growth; market share; brand
B.Liquidity; solvency; capital; leverage
C.Income; growth; protection; tax efficiency
D.Products and services; price and value; consumer understanding; consumer support
Explanation: The Consumer Duty specifies four outcomes: products and services, price and value, consumer understanding, and consumer support. Firms must be able to evidence good outcomes across all four for retail customers.
5For the 2025/26 UK tax year, what is the annual exempt amount (AEA) for capital gains tax for individuals?
A.£3,000
B.£12,300
C.£6,000
D.£20,000
Explanation: The CGT annual exempt amount was reduced to £3,000 for individuals from 2024/25 and remains £3,000 in 2025/26. Gains within this amount are tax-free; gains above it are taxable at the applicable CGT rates.
6Following the Autumn Budget 2024, what are the main rates of capital gains tax on most assets for disposals from 30 October 2024 for basic-rate and higher/additional-rate taxpayers respectively?
A.10% and 20%
B.18% and 24%
C.20% and 40%
D.8% and 18%
Explanation: From 30 October 2024 the main CGT rates rose to 18% for gains within the basic-rate band and 24% for gains taxed at the higher or additional rate. These rates apply to most chargeable assets, including shares, in 2025/26.
7What is the standard inheritance tax (IHT) nil-rate band for an individual in 2025/26?
A.£175,000
B.£500,000
C.£325,000
D.£1,000,000
Explanation: The IHT nil-rate band is £325,000 per person and has been frozen at this level since 2009. Estate value above available nil-rate bands is generally taxed at 40% on death.
8A bare (absolute) trust differs from a discretionary trust principally because, in a bare trust, the beneficiary:
A.Has no entitlement until the trustees exercise discretion
B.Can never access the trust before age 25
C.Is always taxed at the trust rate of income tax
D.Has an immediate, absolute and irrevocable right to the trust capital and income
Explanation: Under a bare trust the named beneficiary has an absolute right to both capital and income, and the assets are treated as theirs for tax. The trustee merely holds legal title, typically for a minor until age 18 (16 in Scotland).
9Which statement best describes the relationship between a bond's price and market interest rates, all else equal?
A.Bond prices and market interest rates move in opposite directions
B.Bond prices and market interest rates move in the same direction
C.Bond prices are unaffected by interest rates
D.Only index-linked bonds are affected by interest rates
Explanation: Fixed-rate bond prices move inversely to market interest rates: when yields rise, the present value of fixed future cash flows falls, so prices drop, and vice versa. This inverse relationship is central to managing interest-rate risk in client portfolios.
10Modified duration of a bond is best used to estimate:
A.The bond's coupon rate
B.The approximate percentage change in price for a 1% change in yield
C.The bond's credit rating
D.The bond's redemption date
Explanation: Modified duration measures a bond's price sensitivity to yield changes, approximating the percentage price change for a 1% (100 basis point) change in yield. A higher modified duration indicates greater interest-rate risk.

About the CISI PCIAM Practice Questions

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