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A toddler in your care is found unresponsive and not breathing. You have called 911. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for infant/child CPR by a single rescuer?

30 compressions to 2 breaths

15 compressions to 2 breaths

10 compressions to 1 breath

5 compressions to 1 breath

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CDA Exam

Exam Questions

60 standard + 5 scenario-based

Competency Standards

Council for Professional Recognition

Functional Areas

Assessed across all CDA settings

$525

Credential Fee

Initial application fee (2026)

3 years

Credential Valid

Renewal: $250 fee

200+

Practice Questions Here

OpenExamPrep question bank

The CDA exam consists of 65 multiple-choice questions (60 standard + 5 scenario-based with photos), administered at Pearson VUE centers. Time limit is 1 hour 45 minutes for most settings (1 hour 55 minutes for the new Birth to Five credential). The exam is Pass/Fail with no published cut score. As of February 2026, candidates take the exam BEFORE scheduling the Verification Visit, and high scorers may qualify for a streamlined credentialing decision. Fee is $525. The credential is valid for 3 years.

Sample CDA Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CDA exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 200+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A toddler in your care is found unresponsive and not breathing. You have called 911. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for infant/child CPR by a single rescuer?

A.30 compressions to 2 breaths

B.15 compressions to 2 breaths

C.10 compressions to 1 breath

D.5 compressions to 1 breath

Explanation: For single-rescuer CPR on infants and children, the American Heart Association recommends a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio. Two-rescuer CPR uses a 15:2 ratio. Compressions should be at least one-third the depth of the chest and delivered at 100–120 per minute.

2Which of the following is the MOST important step in preventing the spread of illness in an early childhood program?

A.Requiring children to wear masks indoors

B.Washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds

C.Using hand sanitizer instead of soap when sinks are unavailable

D.Keeping sick children in a separate room within the facility

Explanation: Handwashing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds is the single most effective practice for preventing the spread of illness in child care settings. The friction and rinsing action physically removes pathogens that hand sanitizer alone cannot eliminate, especially for viruses like norovirus and parasites like Cryptosporidium.

3A child care provider notices a bottle of cleaning solution left on a low shelf accessible to toddlers. According to health and safety best practices, what is the BEST immediate action?

A.Tell the children not to touch the bottle

B.Move the cleaning solution to a locked cabinet out of reach

C.Place a warning sticker on the bottle at child's eye level

D.Dilute the solution before returning it to the low shelf

Explanation: All cleaning products, chemicals, and medications must be stored in locked cabinets or areas completely inaccessible to children. Telling young children not to touch something is unreliable; toddlers lack the impulse control and judgment to follow such instructions consistently. Physical barriers are the only effective preventive measure.

4When conducting a daily safety check of the outdoor play area, which hazard should receive the HIGHEST priority for removal before children use the space?

A.A patch of wet grass from overnight dew

B.A broken piece of equipment with sharp edges and exposed hardware

C.A sandbox that needs new sand added

D.A swing that squeaks but functions normally

Explanation: Broken equipment with sharp edges poses an immediate and serious injury risk — lacerations, puncture wounds, and tetanus exposure — and must be removed from service before children can use the play area. Wet grass and a squeaky swing are nuisances, not hazards; a sandbox needing refill is a maintenance item, not a safety emergency.

5A 4-year-old child in your group has a severe peanut allergy. Another child brings peanut-butter crackers to snack. Which action BEST demonstrates safe practice?

A.Allow the allergic child to sit at a separate table away from the snack

B.Have all children wash hands before and after snack; remove peanut-butter crackers and substitute an allergen-free alternative

C.Monitor the allergic child closely and administer antihistamine if symptoms appear

D.Notify the parents of both children and take no further action that day

Explanation: The safest approach is to eliminate the allergen from the environment entirely and have all children wash hands to remove traces. Airborne proteins from peanut products can trigger reactions, and sitting apart does not eliminate exposure risk. An antihistamine alone is not appropriate first-line treatment for anaphylaxis — epinephrine is required. The child's emergency action plan should already be on file and accessible.

6According to standard child care safety guidelines, at what minimum height must fall-zone surfacing extend around climbing structures to cushion falls?

A.2 feet in all directions

B.6 feet in all directions

C.10 feet in all directions

D.15 feet in all directions

Explanation: The Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) and ASTM F1292 standards require a minimum 6-foot protective surfacing zone extending in all directions around climbing structures. This zone must be surfaced with impact-attenuating material (wood chips, engineered wood fiber, sand, or rubber tiles) to a depth adequate for the equipment's fall height.

7A child care worker is preparing infant formula in a shared kitchen area. Which of the following practices violates safe food handling principles?

A.Using bottled water that has been brought to a rolling boil

B.Preparing formula for several infants simultaneously in a large batch

C.Labeling each bottle with the infant's name, date, and time

D.Discarding any formula remaining after a feeding within 1 hour

Explanation: Preparing formula in a large communal batch creates cross-contamination risks and makes accurate labeling nearly impossible. Each infant's formula should be prepared individually to prevent mix-ups and contamination. The other options reflect proper food safety practices: boiling water eliminates pathogens, labeling prevents mix-ups, and discarding leftover formula prevents bacterial growth.

8During fire drill preparation, which practice is MOST effective for ensuring young children respond appropriately in an actual emergency?

A.Showing children photos of fire emergencies to motivate them to take drills seriously

B.Practicing the drill at the same time each week so children learn the routine

C.Conducting drills at varied times and conditions so children generalize the response

D.Explaining the drill only to children who are old enough to understand the danger

Explanation: Conducting drills at varied times — different activities, different times of day, during rest time — ensures children generalize the evacuation behavior to real emergencies rather than associating it only with a specific routine. Predictable drills at fixed times condition a narrow response that may not transfer to actual emergencies. All children participate regardless of age, with accommodations for younger ones.

9A provider notices a child has unexplained bruising in multiple locations on the torso and upper arms. The child says, "My daddy hit me." What is the provider's legal and ethical obligation?

A.Contact the child's mother privately to discuss the bruising before involving authorities

B.Document the observation and report to the appropriate child protective services agency

C.Confront the father at pickup and document his response

D.Consult with the program director and wait one week to see if additional signs appear

Explanation: Early childhood professionals are mandated reporters in all U.S. states and territories. When they observe signs of suspected abuse or neglect, they must report immediately to child protective services — not investigate, not delay, and not confer with the alleged perpetrator. Waiting one week or involving the accused parent violates both the law and the NAEYC Code of Ethical Conduct.

10Which immunization is recommended by the CDC as a routine vaccination for all children starting at age 2 months?

A.HPV vaccine (Gardasil)

B.DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis)

C.Varicella vaccine

D.MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

Explanation: DTaP is part of the routine immunization schedule beginning at 2 months of age, with doses at 2, 4, 6, and 15–18 months, plus a booster at 4–6 years. Pertussis (whooping cough) is especially dangerous for infants, making early vaccination critical. HPV begins at age 11–12; varicella and MMR begin at 12–15 months.

About the CDA Exam

The CDA (Child Development Associate) credential is the most widely recognized early childhood credential in the United States, awarded by the Council for Professional Recognition. The exam tests 6 Competency Standards across 13 functional areas including safe environments, child development, social-emotional guidance, family relationships, program management, and professionalism.

Questions

65 scored questions

Time Limit

1 hour 45 minutes (105 minutes)

Passing Score

Pass/Fail (no published cut score; evaluated across all 13 functional areas)

Exam Fee

$525 (initial credential) (Council for Professional Recognition / Pearson VUE)

CDA Exam Content Outline

~17%

Safe, Healthy Environment (FA 1–2)

Health and safety practices, emergency procedures, SIDS prevention, illness exclusion, handwashing, medication administration, allergen management

~13%

Learning Environment (FA 3)

Classroom arrangement, age-appropriate materials, interest areas, cultural responsiveness in environment design

~20%

Physical & Intellectual Development (FA 4–5)

Gross and fine motor milestones, cognitive development theories (Piaget, Vygotsky), play and learning, brain development

~15%

Communication & Creative Development (FA 6–7)

Language acquisition, literacy foundations, phonological awareness, bilingual support, art and music in development

~20%

Social-Emotional & Guidance (FA 8–10)

Attachment, Erikson's stages, positive guidance strategies, conflict resolution, self-concept, emotional regulation

~15%

Families & Program Management (FA 11–12)

Family-centered practice, confidentiality, observation and documentation, curriculum planning, assessment tools, transitions

How to Pass the CDA Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Pass/Fail (no published cut score; evaluated across all 13 functional areas)
Exam length: 65 questions
Time limit: 1 hour 45 minutes (105 minutes)
Exam fee: $525 (initial credential)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CDA Study Tips from Top Performers

1Know all 6 Competency Standards and 13 Functional Areas — map them to each other (Standards I-VI contain FAs 1-13)

2Understand key theorists: Piaget (cognitive stages), Vygotsky (ZPD, scaffolding), Erikson (psychosocial stages), Bowlby/Ainsworth (attachment), Bronfenbrenner (ecological systems), Maslow (hierarchy of needs)

3Memorize the NAEYC Code of Ethical Conduct hierarchy: Children FIRST, then Families, then Colleagues, then Community

4Know the Safe Sleep guidelines: always Back to Sleep on a firm, flat, uncluttered surface — no inclined sleepers, bumpers, or soft bedding

5Practice distinguishing objective observation language ('she stacked 4 blocks') from interpretation ('she was excited about blocks')

6As a mandated reporter, the legal standard for reporting suspected abuse is reasonable suspicion — not certainty, not physical evidence, not colleague agreement

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the CDA exam?

The CDA exam has 65 multiple-choice questions: 60 standard knowledge-based questions and 5 scenario-based questions that include a short narrative and photograph. The time limit is 1 hour 45 minutes for most credential settings, and 1 hour 55 minutes for the new Birth to Five credential.

What is the passing score for the CDA exam?

The Council for Professional Recognition does not publish a specific numeric passing score. Results are evaluated holistically across all 13 functional areas. The credentialing decision also considers the Verification Visit (or streamlined decision path for high exam performers) and the Professional Portfolio.

What are the eligibility requirements for the CDA?

To apply for the CDA, you need: (1) a high school diploma or GED; (2) 120 clock hours of formal early childhood education training covering 8 subject areas (minimum 10 hours each); (3) 480 hours of work experience with young children in an early childhood setting within the past 3 years. All applications are now submitted online through the YourCouncil portal.

What changed about the CDA process in 2026?

Major 2026 changes: (1) Candidates now take the exam BEFORE scheduling the Verification Visit; (2) High exam scorers may qualify for a streamlined credentialing decision without a full verification visit; (3) A new Birth to Five center-based credential was launched; (4) Paper applications ended December 31, 2025 — all applications are now online; (5) A new e-portfolio digital tool was launched in February 2026.

What is the CDA Professional Portfolio?

The CDA Professional Portfolio contains six Reflective Competency Statements (one per Competency Standard), Family Questionnaires from families you work with, documentation of your 120+ hours of training, and a Resource Collection. As of 2026, a digital e-portfolio tool in the YourCouncil portal guides candidates through portfolio preparation.

How long is the CDA credential valid?

The CDA credential is valid for 3 years from the date it is awarded. Renewal requires 45 hours of continuing education, a current work experience statement, and the $250 renewal fee. Most renewals are processed automatically upon submission — a percentage are randomly selected for audit.