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100+ Free CCS-P Medical Coding Practice Questions

Pass your AHIMA Certified Coding Specialist — Physician-based exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Question 1
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Which ICD-10-CM code category covers encounters for examinations without complaint or suspected condition?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CCS-P Medical Coding Exam

100+

Practice Questions Here

OpenExamPrep CCS-P bank

300/400

Passing Score

AHIMA scaled scoring

3.5h

Exam Duration

AHIMA CCS-P format

AHIMA

Credentialing Body

American Health Information Management Association

2026

Content Refresh

Current code-year prep

Physician

Setting Focus

Outpatient/physician coding

The AHIMA CCS-P exam covers physician-based coding competencies including ICD-10-CM, CPT, HCPCS Level II, E/M coding, modifiers, and compliance. The exam uses a combination of multiple-choice questions and coding scenarios administered over 3.5 hours at Pearson VUE or online. A scaled score of 300 out of 400 is required to pass. AHIMA recommends 2+ years of physician-based coding experience.

Sample CCS-P Medical Coding Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CCS-P Medical Coding exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A patient presents to a physician office with a chief complaint of right knee pain. The documentation states the patient has primary osteoarthritis of the right knee. Which ICD-10-CM code is most appropriate?
A.M17.11
B.M17.12
C.M17.9
D.M25.561
Explanation: M17.11 is the correct code for primary osteoarthritis of the right knee. M17.12 would indicate the left knee, M17.9 is unspecified, and M25.561 is pain in the right knee but does not capture the underlying condition. Exam Tip: Always code the underlying condition rather than just the symptom when the diagnosis is documented.
2When coding an established patient office visit where the physician documents a level of medical decision making (MDM) that is moderate, which E/M code is correct?
A.99214
B.99213
C.99215
D.99212
Explanation: CPT 99214 corresponds to an established patient office visit with moderate MDM. Under current E/M guidelines, level selection is based on either MDM complexity or total time on the date of encounter. Exam Tip: Remember the MDM levels — straightforward (99212/99202), low (99213/99203), moderate (99214/99204), and high (99215/99205).
3A physician performs a diagnostic colonoscopy and discovers a polyp during the procedure. The polyp is removed by snare technique. Which CPT code should be reported?
A.45385
B.45378
C.45380
D.45384
Explanation: CPT 45385 reports a colonoscopy with removal of tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s) by snare technique. The diagnostic colonoscopy (45378) is bundled into the surgical endoscopy code and should not be reported separately. Exam Tip: Surgical endoscopy always includes the diagnostic endoscopy.
4Which modifier indicates that a procedure was performed on the left side of the body?
A.Modifier LT
B.Modifier RT
C.Modifier 50
D.Modifier 59
Explanation: Modifier LT indicates a procedure performed on the left side. Modifier RT indicates the right side. Modifier 50 is for bilateral procedures, and modifier 59 is for distinct procedural services. Exam Tip: Use LT/RT for unilateral procedures and modifier 50 for bilateral procedures reported as a single line item.
5A patient is seen for a follow-up visit for type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney disease, stage 3. Which code(s) should be sequenced first?
A.E11.22 followed by N18.3
B.N18.3 followed by E11.22
C.E11.65 only
D.E13.22 followed by N18.3
Explanation: E11.22 (type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney disease) is sequenced first as the underlying condition, followed by N18.3 to identify the stage of CKD. ICD-10-CM coding guidelines require the diabetes code with the kidney manifestation to be listed first. Exam Tip: Use the combination code plus the manifestation code; sequence the etiology before the manifestation.
6What is the purpose of HCPCS Level II codes in physician-based coding?
A.To report supplies, drugs, DME, and services not included in CPT
B.To replace CPT codes for all outpatient services
C.To identify facility charges only
D.To report inpatient procedures exclusively
Explanation: HCPCS Level II codes supplement CPT by providing codes for items like drugs, supplies, durable medical equipment (DME), and ambulance services not covered in the CPT code set. They are essential for physician-based coding when reporting injectable medications, orthotics, or prosthetics. Exam Tip: HCPCS Level II codes begin with a letter (A-V) followed by four digits.
7A physician performs an excision of a 2.5 cm benign lesion from the trunk with a 0.5 cm margin. What is the correct measurement to determine the CPT code?
A.3.0 cm (lesion diameter plus narrowest margin times two)
B.2.5 cm (lesion diameter only)
C.3.5 cm (lesion plus total of both margins)
D.0.5 cm (margin only)
Explanation: For excision of skin lesions, the excised diameter includes the lesion diameter plus the narrowest margin on each side. The correct measurement is 2.5 cm + 0.5 cm (margin) = 3.0 cm total excised diameter. Exam Tip: The formula is lesion size + (2 x narrowest margin) for the total excised diameter used in code selection.
8Which coding guideline applies when a patient presents with symptoms but no definitive diagnosis has been established in the physician office?
A.Code the signs and symptoms to the highest degree of certainty
B.Code the suspected or probable diagnosis
C.Code a rule-out diagnosis
D.Leave the diagnosis field blank
Explanation: In the outpatient/physician office setting, ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines state that signs and symptoms should be coded when a definitive diagnosis has not been established. Unlike inpatient coding, outpatient coders should never code uncertain, probable, suspected, or rule-out conditions as if confirmed. Exam Tip: This is a fundamental difference between inpatient and outpatient coding conventions.
9A patient undergoes a screening mammography that reveals a suspicious mass. The radiologist performs an additional diagnostic mammography during the same encounter. How should this be reported?
A.Report both the screening and diagnostic mammography codes with appropriate modifiers
B.Report only the diagnostic mammography code
C.Report only the screening mammography code
D.Report an unlisted radiology code
Explanation: When a screening mammography converts to a diagnostic study during the same encounter, both the screening and diagnostic codes should be reported. The screening code gets modifier GG (performance and payment of a screening mammogram and diagnostic mammogram on the same patient, same day). Exam Tip: Check payer-specific rules, as some payers may bundle these services.
10What does modifier 25 indicate when appended to an E/M service code?
A.A significant, separately identifiable E/M service by the same physician on the same day as a procedure
B.A discontinued procedure
C.Multiple procedures performed during the same session
D.A service provided by a different physician
Explanation: Modifier 25 indicates that a significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service was performed on the same day as a procedure or other service. The E/M must be above and beyond the usual pre- and post-operative work associated with the procedure. Exam Tip: Modifier 25 is one of the most commonly used and tested modifiers; documentation must support the separate E/M.

About the CCS-P Medical Coding Exam

The CCS-P credential from AHIMA is a nationally recognized coding certification focused on physician-based services. The exam tests proficiency in ICD-10-CM diagnosis coding, CPT procedural coding, HCPCS Level II, E/M level selection, modifier usage, and coding compliance in outpatient physician settings.

Questions

115 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

Scaled 300 (100-400)

Exam Fee

$299 members / $399 non-members (AHIMA (Pearson VUE))

CCS-P Medical Coding Exam Content Outline

High

ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding

Code assignment, sequencing rules, conventions, and official guidelines for physician encounters

High

CPT Procedural Coding

Surgery, radiology, pathology/lab, medicine, and E/M code selection with modifier logic

Medium

HCPCS Level II and Modifiers

Supply, drug, DME coding and modifier application for NCCI compliance

Medium

Evaluation and Management

MDM and time-based E/M selection, new/established patients, and preventive medicine

Foundation

Compliance, Terminology, and Anatomy

Coding ethics, documentation standards, medical terminology, and anatomy fundamentals

How to Pass the CCS-P Medical Coding Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled 300 (100-400)
  • Exam length: 115 questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam fee: $299 members / $399 non-members

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CCS-P Medical Coding Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines — especially outpatient sections relevant to physician coding
2Practice CPT code selection from operative notes and documentation across all body systems
3Know E/M level selection using MDM and time-based criteria under current guidelines
4Study modifier logic thoroughly: 25, 26, 59, 50, LT/RT, 76, 77, 78, 79 and NCCI modifier indicators
5Complete timed coding scenarios to build speed and accuracy under exam conditions

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the CCS-P exam format?

The CCS-P exam consists of approximately 115-135 questions including multiple-choice and coding scenario items. It is administered by Pearson VUE either at a test center or via online proctoring. The exam lasts 3 hours and 30 minutes. A scaled score of 300 out of 400 is required to pass.

What is the difference between CCS-P and CPC?

CCS-P is administered by AHIMA and tests physician-based coding using coding scenarios and multiple-choice questions. CPC is administered by AAPC and is an open-codebook exam with 100 multiple-choice questions. Both certify physician/outpatient coding competency, but they are from different credentialing organizations with different exam formats.

How should I study for CCS-P in 2026?

Focus on ICD-10-CM official guidelines, CPT procedural coding across all body systems, E/M level selection, HCPCS Level II, and modifier logic. Practice with coding scenarios that require applying guidelines to documentation. AHIMA recommends at least 2 years of coding experience before attempting the exam.

What topics are most heavily tested on CCS-P?

ICD-10-CM diagnosis coding and CPT procedural coding make up the majority of the exam (approximately 30% each). E/M coding, HCPCS Level II, and compliance/regulatory topics round out the remaining content. Coding scenarios test the ability to assign codes from documentation.

Is CCS-P an open-book or closed-book exam?

The CCS-P exam format and reference material policies are defined by AHIMA and may vary. Check the current AHIMA CCS-P Candidate Guide for the most up-to-date exam rules regarding reference materials. The exam does include coding scenarios where practical coding skills are assessed.

How do I maintain my CCS-P certification?

CCS-P certification must be renewed every two years through continuing education units (CEUs). AHIMA requires a specific number of CEUs in coding-related topics. Failure to recertify results in the credential becoming inactive.