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147+ Free CCRN (Adult) Practice Questions

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CCRN (Adult) Exam

150

Total Items

AACN CCRN handbook

125 + 25

Scored + Unscored

AACN CCRN handbook

3h

Exam Time

AACN CCRN handbook

83

Passing Cut Score

AACN cut score update (effective 2025-11-12)

80/20

Clinical Judgment / Professional Caring

AACN CCRN test plan

$255/$370

Member/Nonmember Fee

AACN CCRN handbook

AACN's revised adult CCRN exam (effective November 12, 2025) uses 150 total items with 125 scored and 25 unscored items, delivered in 3 hours. The framework is Clinical Judgment 80% and Professional Caring & Ethical Practice 20%. Within Clinical Judgment, AACN's handbook weights Cardiovascular 13%, Respiratory 12%, Endocrine/Hematology/Immunology/GI-Renal-GU/Integumentary 21%, Musculoskeletal/Neurological/Behavioral-Psychosocial 18%, and Multisystem 16%. AACN's current cut score is 83 correct out of 125 scored items.

Sample CCRN (Adult) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CCRN (Adult) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 147+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A pulmonary artery catheter shows a pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) of 4 mmHg, CVP 1 mmHg, cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2, and SVR 1900 dynes/sec/cm-5 in a hypotensive trauma patient. This pattern is MOST consistent with which type of shock?
A.Hypovolemic shock
B.Cardiogenic shock
C.Distributive (septic) shock
D.Neurogenic shock
Explanation: Low filling pressures (PAWP 4, CVP 1), low cardiac index, and a compensatory high SVR are the classic profile of hypovolemic shock. Cardiogenic shock raises filling pressures; distributive shock lowers SVR.
2A septic patient has cardiac index 5.5 L/min/m2, SVR 450 dynes/sec/cm-5, PAWP 8 mmHg, and MAP 55 mmHg despite 30 mL/kg crystalloid. Per the Surviving Sepsis Campaign, which vasopressor is the recommended FIRST-line agent?
A.Phenylephrine
B.Norepinephrine
C.Vasopressin
D.Dopamine
Explanation: The Surviving Sepsis Campaign recommends norepinephrine as the first-line vasopressor in septic shock; it raises SVR/MAP with less tachyarrhythmia than dopamine. Vasopressin is added as a second agent.
3A patient in septic shock remains hypotensive on escalating norepinephrine. The provider wants to add a second agent to reduce catecholamine requirements. Which is the recommended add-on per the Surviving Sepsis Campaign?
A.Dobutamine 5 mcg/kg/min
B.Phenylephrine 100 mcg/min bolus
C.Vasopressin 0.03 units/min
D.Dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min
Explanation: Vasopressin (typically fixed at 0.03 units/min) is recommended as an adjunct to norepinephrine in septic shock to raise MAP and decrease norepinephrine dose. Dobutamine is for persistent hypoperfusion with adequate volume/MAP.
4During septic shock resuscitation, the target mean arterial pressure (MAP) recommended by the Surviving Sepsis Campaign for patients on vasopressors is:
A.At least 80 mmHg
B.At least 90 mmHg
C.At least 50 mmHg
D.At least 65 mmHg
Explanation: The Surviving Sepsis Campaign recommends an initial MAP target of 65 mmHg in adults with septic shock on vasopressors; higher targets have not improved outcomes and increase risk.
5A patient with an acute anterior STEMI develops cardiogenic shock: cardiac index 1.6 L/min/m2, PAWP 26 mmHg, SVR 1800 dynes/sec/cm-5, BP 78/50. After establishing adequate MAP, which agent is MOST appropriate to improve contractility and cardiac output?
A.Dobutamine
B.Additional fluid bolus of 2 L
C.Phenylephrine
D.Norepinephrine alone
Explanation: Cardiogenic shock shows high PAWP, low CI, high SVR. Once perfusion pressure is supported, dobutamine (inotrope) improves contractility and cardiac output. Additional large fluid boluses worsen pulmonary edema with a PAWP of 26.
6A monitored patient suddenly develops a wide-complex tachycardia at 180/min and becomes unresponsive with no pulse. What is the immediate priority intervention?
A.Synchronized cardioversion
B.Defibrillation and CPR
C.Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
D.Amiodarone 150 mg over 10 minutes
Explanation: Pulseless ventricular tachycardia is a shockable rhythm treated with immediate unsynchronized defibrillation and high-quality CPR per ACLS. Synchronized cardioversion is for unstable patients WITH a pulse.
7A patient with rapid atrial fibrillation (rate 165) has a BP of 80/48, chest pain, and altered mentation. What is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?
A.IV diltiazem bolus
B.IV metoprolol
C.Synchronized cardioversion
D.Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
Explanation: This is unstable tachycardia with serious signs (hypotension, chest pain, altered mentation). ACLS calls for immediate synchronized cardioversion. Rate-control drugs are too slow and may worsen hypotension; adenosine does not convert atrial fibrillation.
8A patient develops symptomatic bradycardia (rate 38, BP 82/50, diaphoresis, confusion). According to ACLS, the first-line drug is:
A.Adenosine 6 mg IV
B.Amiodarone 300 mg IV
C.Epinephrine 1 mg IV push
D.Atropine 1 mg IV
Explanation: For symptomatic bradycardia, ACLS first-line is atropine 1 mg IV (may repeat to 3 mg max). If ineffective, transcutaneous pacing or dopamine/epinephrine infusion follows.
9A patient on a heparin infusion for ACS develops a platelet count drop from 250,000 to 80,000 on day 6 with a new arterial thrombus. The MOST likely diagnosis and immediate action are:
A.Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia; stop heparin and start a non-heparin anticoagulant
B.ITP; start corticosteroids
C.Dilutional thrombocytopenia; continue heparin
D.DIC; give platelet transfusion
Explanation: A >50% platelet drop 5-10 days into heparin therapy with new thrombosis is classic HIT. Stop ALL heparin and start a non-heparin anticoagulant (e.g., argatroban). Platelet transfusion is generally avoided in HIT.
10A patient with an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is timed correctly when balloon inflation occurs:
A.At the onset of the QRS complex
B.At the dicrotic notch of the arterial waveform
C.At the peak of systole
D.Just before the QRS complex
Explanation: The IABP inflates at the dicrotic notch (onset of diastole) to augment coronary perfusion, and deflates just before systole to reduce afterload. Inflation timed to the dicrotic notch is the hallmark of correct timing.

About the CCRN (Adult) Exam

CCRN is AACN's specialty certification for adult critical care RNs working in high-acuity environments such as ICU and progressive critical care settings. The exam emphasizes clinical judgment, system-based critical care priorities, and professional caring practice.

Questions

150 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

83 out of 125 scored items

Exam Fee

$255 AACN members / $370 non-members (AACN Certification Corporation / PSI)

CCRN (Adult) Exam Content Outline

13%

Cardiovascular

Hemodynamics, perfusion, shock states, dysrhythmias, ACS priorities, and vasoactive-response monitoring

12%

Respiratory

Gas exchange, ventilator management concepts, oxygenation/ventilation failure patterns, and escalation triggers

21%

Endocrine, Hematology/Immunology, GI, Renal/GU, Integumentary

Cross-system instability, metabolic derangements, renal/GU critical care, and immunologic/hematologic complications

18%

Musculoskeletal, Neurological, Behavioral/Psychosocial

Neurocritical changes, behavioral instability, safety-centered bedside decisions, and mobility-related ICU risk management

16%

Multisystem

Sepsis, multi-organ dysfunction, complex resuscitation priorities, and integrated critical-care escalation planning

20%

Professional Caring & Ethical Practice

Advocacy, collaboration, goals-of-care alignment, end-of-life support, and ethical/legal ICU decision-making

How to Pass the CCRN (Adult) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 83 out of 125 scored items
  • Exam length: 150 questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: $255 AACN members / $370 non-members

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CCRN (Adult) Study Tips from Top Performers

1Train high-frequency ICU decision patterns: shock recognition, perfusion trends, and escalation timing
2Use ABG/hemodynamic combined drills rather than isolated system memorization
3Prioritize first-action reasoning in unstable scenarios; CCRN rewards sequence and safety under pressure
4Build timed blocks around adult CCRN weighting so cardiovascular and respiratory decision-making gets repeated exposure
5Practice communication and ethical-care scenarios, especially goals-of-care conflict and end-of-life transitions

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the adult CCRN exam?

AACN's adult CCRN handbook lists 150 items total: 125 scored and 25 unscored.

How long is the CCRN exam?

AACN lists a 3-hour exam appointment for adult CCRN testing.

What score is needed to pass CCRN?

AACN's current cut score notice sets adult CCRN passing at 83 correct out of 125 scored items (effective November 12, 2025).

What is the adult CCRN exam fee?

AACN's handbook lists $255 for AACN members and $370 for non-members for initial CCRN application.

What are the highest-weight CCRN content areas?

AACN's revised adult CCRN handbook weights Clinical Judgment at 80% and Professional Caring/Ethical Practice at 20%. Within Clinical Judgment, the largest weighted domain is Endocrine/Hematology/Immunology/GI-Renal-GU/Integumentary (21%), followed by Musculoskeletal/Neurological/Behavioral-Psychosocial (18%) and Multisystem (16%).

What patient population does adult CCRN cover?

Adult CCRN focuses on acutely/critically ill adult patients and emphasizes bedside clinical judgment in ICU-level care environments.