Free Practice Questions for OPRA Exam

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Sample OPRA Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OPRA Exam exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 142+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A patient's arterial blood gas shows pH 7.30, PaCO2 30 mmHg, and HCO3- 14 mmol/L. Which acid-base disturbance is present?

A.Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

B.Respiratory acidosis

C.Metabolic alkalosis

D.Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation

Explanation: A low pH with a low HCO3- indicates a primary metabolic acidosis. The reduced PaCO2 shows the lungs are hyperventilating to blow off CO2 as respiratory compensation, which is the expected response.

2Which hormone, secreted by the posterior pituitary, primarily increases water reabsorption in the renal collecting ducts?

A.Aldosterone

B.Atrial natriuretic peptide

C.Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)

D.Renin

Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH/vasopressin) acts on V2 receptors in the collecting duct to insert aquaporin-2 channels, increasing water reabsorption and concentrating the urine. It is released from the posterior pituitary in response to rising plasma osmolality.

3A patient with type 1 diabetes presents with hyperglycaemia, ketonaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Which underlying mechanism best explains the ketone production?

A.Excess insulin driving glucose into cells

B.Increased peripheral glucose uptake

C.Suppression of glucagon secretion

D.Absolute insulin deficiency increasing lipolysis and hepatic ketogenesis

Explanation: In diabetic ketoacidosis, absolute insulin deficiency removes the brake on lipolysis, flooding the liver with free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies (acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate). The accumulation of these acids produces the metabolic acidosis.

4Which immunoglobulin class is the first to be produced in a primary immune response and is most efficient at activating complement?

A.IgG

B.IgM

C.IgA

D.IgE

Explanation: IgM is the first antibody produced in a primary immune response. Its pentameric structure provides many binding sites and makes it highly efficient at activating the classical complement pathway.

5Staphylococcus aureus is best described by which set of microbiological characteristics?

A.Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive, coagulase positive

B.Gram-negative rod, lactose fermenter

C.Gram-positive cocci in chains, catalase negative

D.Acid-fast bacillus

Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive coccus that arranges in grape-like clusters. It is catalase positive (distinguishing it from streptococci) and coagulase positive (distinguishing it from coagulase-negative staphylococci).

6In a healthy adult, which value most accurately reflects a normal fasting blood glucose level?

A.1.5-2.5 mmol/L

B.8.0-10.0 mmol/L

C.4.0-5.4 mmol/L

D.12.0-15.0 mmol/L

Explanation: Among the listed ranges, 4.0-5.4 mmol/L best reflects a normal fasting plasma glucose in a healthy adult. Australasian criteria diagnose diabetes at fasting plasma glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L on two occasions; impaired fasting glucose is typically 6.1-6.9 mmol/L.

7Which part of the nephron is the primary site of action of loop diuretics such as furosemide (frusemide)?

A.Proximal convoluted tubule

B.Distal convoluted tubule

C.Collecting duct

D.Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

Explanation: Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-2Cl (NKCC2) cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces sodium reabsorption and disrupts the medullary concentration gradient, producing a powerful diuresis.

8A patient develops left ventricular failure. Which compensatory mechanism initially helps maintain cardiac output but ultimately worsens the failure?

A.Decreased sympathetic tone

B.Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

C.Reduced preload

D.Bradycardia

Explanation: Reduced cardiac output activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), increasing salt and water retention and vasoconstriction to maintain perfusion. Over time this raises preload and afterload, increasing cardiac workload and accelerating ventricular remodelling and decompensation.

9Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of iron-deficiency anaemia?

A.Microcytic, hypochromic red cells with low ferritin

B.Macrocytic red cells with high MCV

C.Normocytic cells with elevated reticulocytes

D.High ferritin with low transferrin saturation

Explanation: Iron-deficiency anaemia produces small (microcytic, low MCV) and pale (hypochromic) red cells. Serum ferritin, the storage form of iron, is low, which is the most specific indicator once iron stores are depleted.

10The blood-brain barrier limits the entry of many drugs into the central nervous system. Which property of a drug most favours its passage across this barrier?

A.High molecular weight and high polarity

B.Strong plasma protein binding

C.High lipid solubility and low ionisation

D.Being a substrate for P-glycoprotein efflux

Explanation: The blood-brain barrier is formed by tight junctions and favours passive diffusion of small, lipophilic, un-ionised molecules. High lipid solubility and a low degree of ionisation therefore promote CNS penetration.

About the OPRA Exam Exam

The Overseas Pharmacist Readiness Assessment (OPRA) is the Australian Pharmacy Council's knowledge-stream exam for internationally qualified pharmacists seeking registration in Australia. It replaced the KAPS exam and tests the biomedical, pharmaceutical and clinical sciences underpinning safe pharmacy practice, with a strong 45% weighting on therapeutics and patient care.

Exam sponsor: Australian Pharmacy Council (APC). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Single closed-book, computer-based paper of 120 single-best-answer MCQs across five content areas; 90% scored and 10% unscored trial items.

Time Limit

150 minutes (2 hours 30 minutes)

Passing Score

Reported as pass/unsuccessful; APC applies a scaled (Rasch) standard rather than a published fixed percentage

Exam / Certification Fees

AU$2,245 (2026 APC fee schedule)

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

20%

Biomedical Sciences

Physiology, pathophysiology, medical microbiology, immunology, body fluids/electrolytes and physiological values of disease states and disorders.

10%

Medicinal Chemistry and Biopharmaceutics

Physicochemical properties, formulation and drug delivery, drug/chemical stability, solubility and pharmaceutical microbiology.

10%

Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics

Drug metabolism and disposition, pharmacokinetic principles and data, and dose-response relationships applied to patient treatment.

15%

Pharmacology and Toxicology

Receptor theory, mechanisms of drug action, adverse drug reactions, interactions, and drug toxicity and its management.

45%

Therapeutics and Patient Care

Screening, dose calculations, primary health care, safe medicine use in special populations, harm minimisation, health promotion and confidentiality.

Preparing for the OPRA Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Reported as pass/unsuccessful; APC applies a scaled (Rasch) standard rather than a published fixed percentage
Assessment: Single closed-book, computer-based paper of 120 single-best-answer MCQs across five content areas; 90% scored and 10% unscored trial items.
Time limit: 150 minutes (2 hours 30 minutes)
Exam / certification fees: AU$2,245 (2026 APC fee schedule) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 142 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OPRA Exam: Suggested Study Strategy

1Weight your study time toward Therapeutics and Patient Care, which alone accounts for 45% of the exam, and practise applied clinical vignettes rather than pure recall.

2Drill pharmaceutical calculations (doses, infusion rates, percentage strengths, unit conversions) under time pressure, since accuracy and pace both matter at roughly 1.25 minutes per question.

3Use Australian references such as the Australian Medicines Handbook and current Australian guidelines, because OPRA tests safe medicine use in the Australian practice context.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the OPRA exam and how long is it?

The OPRA exam has 120 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions to be completed in 150 minutes (2.5 hours). About 90% of the questions are scored and 10% are unscored trial items distributed across the content areas.

Did OPRA replace the KAPS exam?

Yes. The Overseas Pharmacist Readiness Assessment (OPRA) replaced the Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences (KAPS) as the Australian Pharmacy Council's knowledge-stream exam, with a greater emphasis on therapeutics and applied patient care.

What is the passing score for the OPRA exam?

The APC does not publish a fixed percentage pass mark. The exam uses a scaled (Rasch) standard-setting method, and candidates receive a result of pass or unsuccessful against the set competency standard.

How much does the OPRA exam cost and where is it held?

The 2026 APC fee for the OPRA exam is AU$2,245. It is delivered as a computer-based exam at Pearson VUE test centres globally on behalf of the Australian Pharmacy Council.