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100+ Free CPL Flight Planning Practice Questions

Pass your CASA Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) — Flight Planning & Performance (CFPA) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CPL Flight Planning Exam

100

Practice Questions

OpenExamPrep

45

Official Questions

CASA

70%

Pass Mark

CASA

2.5 hrs

Time Limit

CASA

The CASA CPL(A) Flight Planning & Performance (CFPA) exam is a core commercial pilot theory test in Australia. Running 2.5 hours with a 70% pass mark, it requires calculation proficiency in takeoff distance, load planning, and PNR/ETP fuel limits. This prep features 100 questions.

Sample CPL Flight Planning Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CPL Flight Planning exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Which of the following describes density altitude and its effect on aircraft performance?
A.Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature; high density altitude increases engine thrust and aerodynamic lift.
B.Indicated altitude corrected for instrument error; high density altitude decreases aerodynamic drag and improves climb rate.
C.Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature; high density altitude decreases engine thrust and aerodynamic lift.
D.Pressure altitude corrected for humidity; low density altitude reduces engine power and increases take-off distance.
Explanation: Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. As temperature increases, air density decreases (meaning high density altitude), which reduces engine power, propeller efficiency, and aerodynamic lift, thereby degrading performance. The other options either misdefine density altitude or state that performance is improved at high density altitudes.
2What is the primary effect of a headwind on take-off performance?
A.It decreases the lift-off airspeed while keeping the groundspeed constant.
B.It increases the ground roll distance and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).
C.It increases the groundspeed at liftoff and decreases the climb gradient.
D.It decreases the ground roll distance and decreases the take-off distance required (TODR).
Explanation: A headwind provides a portion of the required lift-off airspeed before the aircraft starts moving, which reduces the ground roll distance and the total take-off distance required (TODR) to clear a 50-foot obstacle. It does not increase the ground roll distance, and it decreases groundspeed at liftoff, which increases (improves) the climb angle relative to the ground.
3What is the main effect of a tailwind on landing performance?
A.It increases the groundspeed at touchdown and increases the landing distance required (LDR).
B.It decreases the groundspeed at touchdown and decreases the landing distance required (LDR).
C.It reduces the landing distance by increasing the aerodynamic drag.
D.It increases the climb gradient and reduces the braking distance.
Explanation: A tailwind increases the groundspeed at touchdown for a given landing airspeed, which increases the kinetic energy that must be dissipated, resulting in a longer landing distance required (LDR). The other options incorrectly assert that a tailwind decreases the groundspeed or landing distance.
4An aircraft is landing on Runway 09. The wind is reported as 130 degrees at 20 knots. What is the approximate crosswind component?
A.20 knots
B.17 knots
C.15 knots
D.13 knots
Explanation: The angle between the wind direction (130 degrees) and runway heading (090 degrees) is 40 degrees. The crosswind component is calculated as Wind Speed * sin(angle) = 20 * sin(40 degrees) = 20 * 0.643 = 12.86 knots, which approximates to 13 knots. The other options are incorrect calculations (15 knots is for ~48 degrees, 17 knots is the headwind component 20 * cos(40), and 20 knots is the full wind speed).
5What is the general effect of a downslope on take-off and landing distance?
A.It decreases both the take-off and landing ground rolls.
B.It increases both the take-off and landing ground rolls.
C.It increases the take-off ground roll and decreases the landing ground roll.
D.It decreases the take-off ground roll but increases the landing ground roll.
Explanation: A downslope helps accelerate the aircraft during takeoff due to the component of gravity acting along the runway, thereby decreasing the take-off ground roll. However, during landing, gravity acts to keep the aircraft moving down the slope, which opposes deceleration and increases the landing ground roll. The other options are incorrect combinations of these effects.
6How does a wet runway surface primarily affect landing performance?
A.It increases aerodynamic drag, decreasing the landing roll.
B.It increases tire friction, decreasing the landing roll.
C.It has no effect on landing roll but increases takeoff performance.
D.It reduces tire braking effectiveness, increasing the landing roll.
Explanation: A wet runway surface reduces the coefficient of friction between the tires and the runway surface, which reduces braking effectiveness and increases the landing ground roll. It does not increase tire friction or significantly increase aerodynamic drag, and it certainly has an effect on the landing roll.
7Which of the following is the correct definition of climb gradient?
A.The ratio of change in altitude to horizontal distance traveled over the ground, expressed as a percentage.
B.The ratio of true airspeed to groundspeed during a climb, expressed as a factor.
C.The rate of change in altitude over time, expressed in feet per minute.
D.The angle between the aircraft nose and the horizon, expressed in degrees.
Explanation: Climb gradient is defined as the ratio of altitude gained to horizontal distance traveled over the ground, usually expressed as a percentage. Rate of climb is altitude gain per unit time (expressed in feet per minute), and pitch attitude is the angle of the nose relative to the horizon. True airspeed to groundspeed ratio is a different metric.
8What is the operational significance of the maximum demonstrated crosswind limit?
A.It is the minimum crosswind required to achieve a safe slip angle during crosswind landings.
B.It is the maximum crosswind component in which the aircraft was shown to be controllable during certification by a test pilot.
C.It is a structural limit that, if exceeded, will result in immediate gear failure.
D.It is a regulatory limitation that cannot be exceeded under any circumstances by private pilots.
Explanation: The maximum demonstrated crosswind is the maximum crosswind component in which the aircraft was shown to be controllable during certification test flights. Under Australian CASA regulations, it is not a legal limit for private operations (unless specified as a limitation in the Flight Manual or POH), but it is a strong recommendation and often a limit for commercial operations. It is not a structural limit.
9How does high relative humidity affect take-off performance?
A.It decreases air density, which decreases engine power and aerodynamic lift.
B.It increases engine power by providing water injection effect.
C.It has no effect on light aircraft takeoff performance.
D.It increases air density, which increases engine power and aerodynamic lift.
Explanation: Water vapor is less dense than dry air. High relative humidity decreases the overall density of the air, which increases the density altitude, thereby reducing engine power output and aerodynamic lift, resulting in longer take-off runs. Water injection is a specialized system and does not apply to ambient humidity.
10What is the effect of ground effect on takeoff performance?
A.It decreases parasite drag, allowing faster acceleration from the start of the roll.
B.It increases induced drag, requiring higher speed to lift off.
C.It increases parasite drag, slowing down acceleration during the ground roll.
D.It decreases induced drag, allowing the aircraft to become airborne at a lower airspeed than normal.
Explanation: Ground effect occurs when an aircraft flies within one wingspan of the surface. The ground blocks the full development of wingtip vortices, which decreases induced drag. This allows the aircraft to lift off or fly at a lower speed than normal, but the pilot must be careful not to climb out of ground effect before reaching normal climb speed. It does not affect parasite drag.

About the CPL Flight Planning Exam

The CASA CPL(A) Flight Planning & Performance Exam (CFPA) is one of the seven theory exams required for a Commercial Pilot Licence in Australia. It tests take-off and landing performance charts, weight and balance calculations (center of gravity limits, loading systems), cruise/climb/descent planning, fuel calculations, and point of no return (PNR) and equal time point (ETP) derivations.

Assessment

Closed-book computer-based exam administered at approved ASPEQ centers. Candidates are permitted to use a basic calculator and relevant performance charts/loading systems (e.g., Echo loading system).

Time Limit

2.5 hours

Passing Score

70%

Exam Fee

.39 AUD (includes .39 invigilator fee and CASA fee) (CASA / ASPEQ Exam Delivery)

CPL Flight Planning Exam Content Outline

25%

Takeoff, Landing & Climb Performance

TODR, LDR, climb gradients, wind limits, density altitude effects, and performance charts

25%

Weight & Balance / COG

Echo loading system, floor limits, index units, ballast calculations, and CG shift formulas

25%

Flight Planning & Fuel Limits

PNR (Point of No Return), ETP (Equal Time Point) formulas, flight log preparation, and wind vector calculations

15%

Charts & Interpolations

Reading and interpolating linear and non-linear performance graphs, pressure height adjustments

10%

ALA & Operational Rules

Aerodrome Landing Area guidelines, airworthiness documentation, and minimum equipment lists

How to Pass the CPL Flight Planning Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70%
  • Assessment: Closed-book computer-based exam administered at approved ASPEQ centers. Candidates are permitted to use a basic calculator and relevant performance charts/loading systems (e.g., Echo loading system).
  • Time limit: 2.5 hours
  • Exam fee: .39 AUD (includes .39 invigilator fee and CASA fee)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CPL Flight Planning Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the CG shift formula: Distance CG shifts = (weight shifted * distance shifted) / total weight of aircraft
2When reading performance charts, always double-check standard temperature versus ambient temperature deviations (ISA variance)
3Practice fuel conversions: know how to convert between litres, US gallons, and kilograms of AVGAS (AVGAS SG is ~0.72)

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Echo loading system?

It is a standard generic light twin-engine aircraft loading model used in Australia for CPL training and examinations to test loading, CG, and shift calculations.

How is PNR calculated?

PNR distance = (Fuel on Board to safe reserve * Ground Speed Out * Ground Speed Return) / (Safe endurance * (Ground Speed Out + Ground Speed Return)). Candidates must be fast and accurate with this formula.