100+ Free Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Practice Questions

Prepare for the Arab Board of Health Specializations (ABHS) Family Medicine Final Written Examination exam with instant access — no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately

100+ Questions

100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Same family resources

Explore More Arab Board Specialty Certification Exams

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

Sample Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 52-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic for a health checkup. His blood pressure on two separate clinic visits averages 164/102 mmHg. He has no past medical history, and baseline laboratory investigations including serum creatinine, electrolytes, and urinalysis are normal. According to current hypertension guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial pharmacological management?

A.Monotherapy with amlodipine 5 mg daily

B.Monotherapy with hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily

C.Dual therapy with an ACE inhibitor and a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

D.Triple therapy with an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide diuretic

Explanation: For patients with stage 2 hypertension (blood pressure >= 140/90 mmHg or >= 20/10 mmHg above goal), guidelines recommend initiating therapy with two first-line antihypertensive agents of different classes. The combination of an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker provides synergistic blood pressure reduction, superior cardiovascular protection, and reduces the risk of peripheral edema associated with CCBs. Monotherapy is insufficient for blood pressure elevation of this degree, while triple therapy is reserved for resistant or severe hypertension.

2A 58-year-old woman with a 7-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for routine follow-up. Her current HbA1c is 8.2% despite metformin 1000 mg twice daily. She has a history of non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction 2 years ago. Her eGFR is 48 mL/min/1.73 m² and urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio is 180 mg/g. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication to add to her regimen?

A.Gliclazide MR

B.Empagliflozin

C.Pioglitazone

D.Sitagliptin

Explanation: In patients with type 2 diabetes and established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) or chronic kidney disease (CKD), SGLT2 inhibitors (such as empagliflozin or dapagliflozin) or GLP-1 receptor agonists are strongly recommended regardless of baseline HbA1c. SGLT2 inhibitors significantly reduce cardiovascular mortality, heart failure hospitalizations, and slow CKD progression. Metformin plus an SGLT2 inhibitor is the preferred combination for this patient with both ischemic heart disease and diabetic kidney disease.

3A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 8.8%) and a BMI of 34 kg/m² has a history of stable angina. He is already taking metformin 1000 mg twice daily and rosuvastatin 20 mg daily. He is eager to lose weight and reduce his long-term risk of stroke and myocardial infarction. Which antidiabetic class has proven superiority for both substantial weight reduction and major adverse cardiovascular event (MACE) reduction?

A.DPP-4 inhibitors

B.Thiazolidinediones

C.GLP-1 receptor agonists

D.Sulfonylureas

Explanation: GLP-1 receptor agonists (such as semaglutide, liraglutide, or dulaglutide) demonstrate robust reductions in major adverse cardiovascular events (cardiovascular death, nonfatal MI, nonfatal stroke) in patients with established ASCVD or high risk. Additionally, GLP-1 RAs promote significant, sustained weight loss by slowing gastric emptying and enhancing central satiety. They represent the primary recommended add-on for diabetic patients with obesity and established cardiovascular disease.

4A 66-year-old man is diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF; LVEF 32%). He is currently asymptomatic at rest but experiences dyspnea when climbing one flight of stairs (NYHA Class II). His blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg, heart rate is 72 bpm, serum creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL, and potassium is 4.4 mEq/L. Which combination constitutes the four foundational pillar drug classes of guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for HFrEF?

A.ACE inhibitor, Loop Diuretic, Digoxin, and Hydralazine

B.ARNI (or ACEi/ARB), Evidence-based Beta-Blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitor

C.Calcium Channel Blocker, Beta-Blocker, ARB, and Thiazide Diuretic

D.ARNI, Loop Diuretic, Calcium Channel Blocker, and Potassium Sparing Diuretic

Explanation: The 4 foundational pillars of GDMT for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) that have proven mortality and morbidity benefits are: 1) Angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI, e.g., sacubitril/valsartan) or ACEi/ARB, 2) Evidence-based beta-blocker (bisoprolol, carvedilol, or metoprolol succinate), 3) Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA, e.g., spironolactone or eplerenone), and 4) SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin). Loop diuretics are added as needed for congestion, while non-dihydropyridine CCBs are contraindicated.

5A 71-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is found to have non-valvular atrial fibrillation on a routine ECG. She is asymptomatic and has no history of stroke, transient ischemic attack, or heart failure. Her calculated CHA2DS2-VASc score is 4 (Age 65-74 = 1, Female = 1, Hypertension = 1, Diabetes = 1). What is the recommended long-term stroke prevention strategy?

A.Aspirin 81 mg daily monotherapy

B.Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel

C.Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban or rivaroxaban

D.No antithrombotic therapy required since she is asymptomatic

Explanation: In non-valvular atrial fibrillation, oral anticoagulation is strongly recommended for stroke prevention in men with a CHA2DS2-VASc score >= 2 and women with a score >= 3. Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs like apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, or edoxaban) are preferred over warfarin due to superior or non-inferior efficacy, lower risk of intracranial hemorrhage, and no requirement for routine INR monitoring. Antiplatelet therapy alone is ineffective for stroke prevention in AF and is no longer recommended.

6A 55-year-old man with chronic stable angina experiences chest tightness with moderate exertion that is relieved within 3 minutes of rest. His resting ECG is normal, and resting heart rate is 84 bpm with a blood pressure of 136/82 mmHg. Which class of medication is the first-line choice for antianginal symptom control in chronic stable ischemic heart disease?

A.Short-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

B.Beta-blocker

C.Long-acting oral nitrate monotherapy

D.Ranolazine

Explanation: Beta-blockers (e.g., bisoprolol, metoprolol succinate, atenolol) are the recommended first-line antianginal therapy in chronic stable ischemic heart disease. They reduce myocardial oxygen demand by lowering heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial contractility, particularly during exercise. Calcium channel blockers or long-acting nitrates are added or substituted if beta-blockers are contraindicated, not tolerated, or inadequate for symptom control.

7A 60-year-old woman with longstanding hypertension and type 2 diabetes is found to have an eGFR of 52 mL/min/1.73 m² and a confirmed urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR) of 420 mg/g (severely increased albuminuria, category A3). Her serum potassium is 4.6 mEq/L. Which class of antihypertensive medication is specifically indicated to slow the progression of diabetic chronic kidney disease?

A.Thiazide diuretic

B.Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

C.ACE inhibitor or Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB)

D.Centrally acting alpha-2 agonist

Explanation: ACE inhibitors or ARBs are the cornerstone of therapy for diabetic kidney disease with albuminuria (UACR > 30 mg/g). They reduce intraglomerular hydrostatic pressure by preferentially dilating the efferent arteriole, thereby reducing proteinuria and slowing the decline in renal function. Serum creatinine and potassium should be monitored within 2 to 4 weeks of initiation or dose escalation.

8A 24-year-old woman presents to the family medicine clinic with intermittent wheezing and chest tightness occurring 2 to 3 times per month, usually triggered by cold air or exercise. She has never been hospitalized for asthma. Spirometry demonstrates normal baseline lung function with a 14% improvement in FEV1 following inhaled albuterol. According to current Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) Track 1 recommendations for mild asthma (Step 1-2), what is the preferred reliever and controller strategy?

A.Short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) alone as needed

B.Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) taken daily, plus SABA as needed

C.As-needed low-dose ICS-formoterol combination inhaler

D.Oral leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast) daily plus SABA as needed

Explanation: Under the GINA guidelines (Track 1 preferred strategy), the recommended treatment for Step 1 and Step 2 asthma is as-needed low-dose ICS-formoterol. This approach provides rapid symptom relief via formoterol (a rapid-onset, long-acting beta-2 agonist) while simultaneously delivering an anti-inflammatory dose of inhaled corticosteroid to reduce the risk of severe exacerbations. SABA-only treatment is no longer recommended by GINA because it does not address underlying airway inflammation and increases exacerbation risk.

9A 64-year-old male former smoker (40 pack-years) presents with worsening exertional dyspnea and chronic productive cough for the past 2 years. Post-bronchodilator spirometry reveals an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.61 and FEV1 of 58% predicted. He has had two moderate COPD exacerbations treated with oral antibiotics and steroids in the past 12 months. His blood eosinophil count is 80 cells/mcL. According to the GOLD guidelines (Group E), what is the most appropriate initial maintenance inhaler regimen?

A.Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) as needed

B.Long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) monotherapy

C.Combination LABA + LAMA (long-acting muscarinic antagonist)

D.Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) + LABA combination

Explanation: According to the GOLD COPD report, patients with >= 2 moderate exacerbations or >= 1 hospitalization in the prior year are classified as Group E (exacerbation-prone). The recommended initial maintenance therapy for Group E is dual bronchodilation with a LABA + LAMA combination. An inhaled corticosteroid (triple therapy LABA+LAMA+ICS) is considered if blood eosinophils are >= 300 cells/mcL, but in this patient with an eosinophil count of 80 cells/mcL, ICS provides little benefit and increases pneumonia risk.

10A 74-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease and prior stent placement presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, and constipation. Laboratory testing reveals a serum TSH of 18.5 mIU/L (normal 0.4-4.0) and free T4 of 0.6 ng/dL (normal 0.8-1.8). What is the most appropriate initial dose and titration strategy for levothyroxine in this patient?

A.Start full replacement dose (1.6 mcg/kg/day, ~125 mcg daily) immediately

B.Start at a low dose (25 mcg daily) and titrate slowly every 6 to 8 weeks based on TSH

C.Administer liothyronine (T3) monotherapy to rapidly normalize thyroid levels

D.Withhold thyroid hormone therapy until a coronary angiogram is repeated

Explanation: In elderly patients and individuals with known coronary artery disease, levothyroxine should be initiated at a low dose (12.5 to 25 mcg daily) and titrated slowly in increments of 12.5 to 25 mcg every 6 to 8 weeks. Rapid full-dose replacement can dramatically increase myocardial oxygen demand, precipitating angina, myocardial infarction, or malignant cardiac arrhythmias. In younger healthy adults without cardiac disease, full weight-based dosing (~1.6 mcg/kg/day) can be started safely.

About the Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Exam

The Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Examination is the definitive theoretical assessment for senior family medicine residents across Arab League countries. The exam evaluates advanced clinical problem-solving, chronic disease management, maternal-fetal and pediatric care, mental health, preventive care, dermatology, musculoskeletal conditions, and evidence-based decision-making in primary care practice.

Assessment

A single-session written paper of single-best-answer (SBA) multiple-choice questions in clinical vignette format.

Time Limit

Approximately 3 hours

Passing Score

Approximately 60% (determined by standard setting methods by the ABHS Scientific Council of Family Medicine).

Exam Fee

Set by ABHS and national councils; varies by country and training center. (Arab Board of Health Specializations (ABHS) - Scientific Council of Family Medicine)

Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Exam Content Outline

22%

Adult Chronic Illnesses & Internal Medicine

Comprehensive ambulatory management of cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, respiratory disorders, renal disease, and endocrine dysfunctions.

14%

Maternal & Women's Health

Antenatal and postpartum care, contraception counselling, abnormal uterine bleeding, cervical/breast screening, menopause, and obstetric emergency triage.

14%

Child & Adolescent Health

Neonatal care, developmental milestones, childhood immunization schedules, common pediatric infectious diseases, asthma, and behavioral conditions.

12%

Preventive Medicine & Health Maintenance

Adult immunizations, age-appropriate cancer screenings, cardiovascular risk calculators, smoking cessation, obesity management, and lifestyle medicine.

10%

Mental Health & Substance Use Disorders

Primary care diagnosis and pharmacotherapy for major depressive disorder, generalized anxiety, panic disorder, PTSD, insomnia, and substance use disorders.

Musculoskeletal Disorders & Rheumatology

Low back pain, osteoarthritis, gout, rotator cuff tendinopathy, knee ligament injuries, osteoporosis, and inflammatory arthritis workup.

Dermatology in Primary Care

Eczema, psoriasis, acne vulgaris, cutaneous fungal and bacterial infections, benign skin lesions, and malignant skin neoplasm identification.

Common ENT, Ophthalmic & Urological Disorders

Otitis media, sinusitis, red eye differential diagnosis, benign prostatic hyperplasia, urinary incontinence, and erectile dysfunction.

Evidence-Based Practice & Consultation Skills

Study design interpretation, diagnostic test accuracy (sensitivity/specificity/likelihood ratios), clinical ethics, patient communication, and prescribing safety.

How to Pass the Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Approximately 60% (determined by standard setting methods by the ABHS Scientific Council of Family Medicine).
Assessment: A single-session written paper of single-best-answer (SBA) multiple-choice questions in clinical vignette format.
Time limit: Approximately 3 hours
Exam fee: Set by ABHS and national councils; varies by country and training center.

Keys to Passing

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) thresholds for diabetes, hypertension, heart failure, and dyslipidemia in ambulatory practice.

2Practice clinical vignette questions under timed conditions to refine pattern recognition and avoid over-investigation of common benign conditions.

3Review maternal, pediatric, and geriatric primary care management, giving special attention to red flag symptoms requiring immediate specialist referral or emergency hospital transfer.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Exam?

The examination consists of a theoretical paper containing approximately 150 single-best-answer (SBA) multiple-choice questions based on real-world primary care vignettes, administered over roughly 3 hours.

What is the passing score for the ABHS Family Medicine Final Written Exam?

The passing score is established through standard-setting methodology by the ABHS Scientific Council of Family Medicine, typically around 60%. Candidates should aim for consistent scores above 75% during practice.

Who is eligible to take the Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Examination?

Senior residents who have successfully completed the requisite years of accredited Arab Board Family Medicine residency training, fulfilled all logbook and continuous evaluation requirements, and passed the Part 1 examination are eligible.

What core clinical guidelines should candidates focus on during preparation?

Candidates should study international and regional evidence-based guidelines including ADA Standards of Care for diabetes, KDIGO for CKD, GINA for asthma, GOLD for COPD, ACC/AHA and ESC for cardiovascular disease, USPSTF/WHO preventive care guidelines, and ABHS clinical practice protocols.

100+ Free Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Practice Questions

Explore More Arab Board Specialty Certification Exams

Arab Board Pediatrics Part 1 Written Exam (ABHS)

Arab Board Anatomic Pathology Part 1 Written Exam (ABHS)

Arab Board Anesthesia and Intensive Care Final Clinical and Oral Exam (ABHS)

Arab Board Anesthesia and Intensive Care Final Written Exam (ABHS)

Arab Board Anesthesia Part 1 Written Exam (ABHS)

Arab Board Clinical Pathology Part 1 Written Exam (ABHS)